UPPCS Polity Test Series in English pdf | Polity Test pdf English | Polity Questions for UPPCS | Polity Full Length Test | Polity Question pdf

UPPCS Prelims Test Series 2025 | 25 Best Mock Tests @ Just ₹299 (Bilingual)

UPPCS Prelims Test Series 2025 | 25 Mock Tests @ Just ₹299 (Bilingual)

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UPPCS Polity Test Series in English pdf

UPPCS Polity Test Series in English pdf | Polity Test pdf English | Polity Questions for UPPCS | Polity Full Length Test | Polity Question pdf

UPPCS Prelims 2025 Test 1 (Solution) – Polity Full Length (SSW – 8077834630)

1. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option:

List-I (Acts)   -  List-II (Provisions)

A. Regulating Act, 1773  - 1. Establishment of Supreme Court in Calcutta

B. Charter Act, 1813 - 2. Allowed Christian missionaries in India

C. Pitt’s India Act, 1784 - 3. Creation of Board of Control

D. Act of Settlement, 1781 - 4. Limited the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

Code: 

      A  B  C  D

(a) 1  2  3  4

(b) 2  1  4  3

(c) 1  3  2  4

(d) 3  2  1  4

Answer – (a) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:

Regulating Act, 1773 → Established the Supreme Court at Calcutta.

Charter Act, 1813 → Ended trade monopoly of East India Company and allowed Christian missionaries.

Pitt’s India Act, 1784 → Created the Board of Control, formalizing dual government.

Act of 1781 (Settlement Act) → Clarified and limited the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to British subjects only.

2. Which of the following were introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Diarchy in provinces
2. Bicameral legislature at the Centre
3. Establishment of Federal Court

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (a)

Explanation:

GOI Act, 1919 introduced dyarchy in provinces and bicameralism at the centre. The Federal Court came later under the 1935 Act.

3. The Indian Councils Act, 1861 is significant because:

(a) It introduced direct elections

(b) It associated Indians with the law-making process

(c) It abolished the Governor-General’s Council

(d) It introduced dyarchy in provinces

Answer – (b)

Explanation:

The Act of 1861 marked the beginning of representative institutions by allowing the Viceroy to nominate Indians to the legislative council.

4. The 1935 Act proposed which of the following?

1. Federal Court
2. Federal Railway Authority
3. Provincial Autonomy

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (d)

Explanation:

The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed the creation of a Federal Court, Provincial Autonomy, and Federal Railway Authority. It also established Reserve Bank of India and gave more legislative powers to provinces.

5. Which of the following rights was granted by Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858?

(a) Right to education

(b) Right to vote

(c) Religious freedom and non-interference

(d) Right to property

Answer – (c)

Explanation:

Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858, issued after the Revolt of 1857, marked the transfer of Indian administration from the East India Company to the British Crown. One of its most important assurances was that British authorities would not interfere with the religious beliefs and customs of Indians. It aimed to win the trust of Indian subjects by promising religious freedom and equal treatment under British law. The proclamation did not grant political rights like voting or property rights, nor did it institutionalize education as a right.

6. The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Flag on –

(a) 26 January 1950

(b) 9 December 1946

(c) 22 July 1947

(d) 24 January 1950

Answer – (c)

Explanation: The tricolour was adopted as the National Flag on 22 July 1947 by the Constituent Assembly.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly was created by the Cripps Mission.
2. The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held under the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Which is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Cripps Mission only proposed the idea; the actual election and formation took place under the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946).

8. Who among the following was the first to address the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b) J.B. Kripalani

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

Answer – (b)

Explanation: J.B. Kripalani was the first to formally address the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946.

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly first met on 6 December 1946.
2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first temporary chairman of the Assembly.

Which is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (d)

Explanation: The Assembly first met on 9 December 1946, and Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was the temporary chairman.

10. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee at its formation?

(a) K.M. Munshi

(b) D.P. Khaitan

(c) T.T. Krishnamachari

(d) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

Answer – (c)

Explanation: T.T. Krishnamachari was inducted later after D.P. Khaitan’s death in 1948.

11. The idea of “India shall be a Union of States” is mentioned in –

(a) Article 2

(b) Article 1

(c) Article 3

(d) Preamble

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Article 1 states “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.”

12. Consider the following Articles:

1. Article 324 – Election Commission
2. Article 243-G – Powers of Panchayats
3. Article 280 – Finance Commission

Which are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer – (c)

Explanation: All three articles are correctly matched:

Article 324 deals with the Election Commission of India, which is responsible for conducting elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.

Article 243-G specifies the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats, added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

Article 280 provides for the constitution of the Finance Commission, which recommends the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States.

13. Match List-I (Schedules of the Constitution) with List-II (Subject Matter) and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I (Schedule)  -   List-II (Subject Matter)

A. Fifth Schedule  1. Tribal Areas in Northeast

B. Sixth Schedule  2. Languages recognized by the Constitution

C. Eighth Schedule 3. Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes

Code:

  A  B  C

(a) 3  1  2

(b) 2  3  1

(c) 1  2  3

(d) 3  2  1

Answer – (a) A-3, B-1, C-2

Explanation:

Fifth Schedule: Deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in other parts of India (not Northeast).

Sixth Schedule: Pertains to administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Eighth Schedule: Recognizes 22 languages under the Constitution.

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Preamble is part of the Constitution.
2. Preamble is enforceable in court.

Select the correct code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (a)

Explanation: The Preamble is part of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case), but not enforceable.

15. Which Part of the Constitution deals with Emergency provisions?

(a) Part XV

(b) Part XVIII

(c) Part XVII

(d) Part XIX

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Part XVIII (Articles 352–360) deals with Emergency Provisions.

16. Which of the following words were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 to the Preamble?

(a) Secular, Democratic, Republic

(b) Socialist, Sovereign, Integrity

(c) Socialist, Secular, Integrity

(d) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity

Answer – (c)

Explanation – The 42nd Amendment added the terms “Socialist”, “Secular”, and “Integrity” to the Preamble.

17. When was the Preamble of the Indian Constitution adopted?

(a) 15th August 1947

(b) 26th January 1950

(c) 26th November 1949

(d) 22nd July 1947

Answer – (c)

Explanation – The Constitution, including the Preamble, was adopted on 26 November 1949.

18. Which of the following features is NOT mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Sovereign

(b) Socialist

(c) Federal

(d) Secular

Answer – (c)

Explanation – The word “federal” is not used in the Preamble.

19. What does ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble imply?

(a) State control of all industries

(b) Equal distribution of wealth

(c) Mixed economy with welfare principles

(d) Statutory religion

Answer – (c)

Explanation – India follows democratic socialism, not state socialism.

20. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

(a) The Preamble begins with “We, the people of India”

(b) The Preamble was added after the adoption of the Constitution

(c) The Preamble confers enforceable rights

(d) The Preamble reflects the ideals of the Objective Resolution

Answer – (c)

Explanation – The Preamble is non-justiciable and does not grant enforceable rights.

21. Identify the correct chronological order of these events:

I. Objectives Resolution

II. Adoption of the Preamble

III. Enforcement of the Constitution

Code:

(a) I, II, III

(b) II, I, III

(c) III, II, I

(d) I, III, II

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Objectives Resolution (1946), Adoption (1949), Enforcement (1950).

22. Which of the following territories are included in the ‘territory of India’ as per Article 1(3)?

(a) Only states and union territories

(b) Only states

(c) States, union territories, and acquired territories

(d) Only acquired territories

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Article 1(3) includes states, union territories, and territories that may be acquired.

23. Consider the following pairs:

1. Article 2 – Admission of new states
2. Article 3 – Change of name, area, or boundaries of states
3. Article 4 – Requires amendment under Article 368

Which are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Article 4 laws are not considered constitutional amendments under Article 368.

24. Choose the incorrect statement:

(a) The First Schedule lists all states and UTs

(b) Parliament requires state legislature’s consent to alter a boundary

(c) The President must recommend such bills

(d) State views are not binding on Parliament

Answer – (b)

Explanation – State legislature’s consent is not mandatory under Article 3.

25. Assertion (A): India is called a ‘Union of States’ in Article 1.

Reason (R): States have the right to secede under certain conditions.

Code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Explanation

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Answer – (c)

Explanation – States have no right to secede.

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26. Arrange the following in chronological order of accession:

I. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

II. Puducherry

III. Goa

IV. Sikkim

Code:

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) II, I, III, IV

(c) III, I, II, IV

(d) IV, II, III, I

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Accession years: 1954 (Dadra), 1954–62 (Puducherry), 1961 (Goa), 1975 (Sikkim).

27. Arrange the following in ascending order of statehood year:

A. Nagaland

B. Haryana

C. Sikkim

D. Arunachal Pradesh

(a) A, B, C, D

(b) B, A, D, C

(c) A, C, D, B

(d) A, B, D, C

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Statehood years: Nagaland (1963), Haryana (1966), Sikkim (1975), Arunachal Pradesh (1987).

28. Who among the following were granted citizenship under Article 6 of the Constitution?

(a) Persons residing in India for 12 years

(b) Persons of Indian origin residing in foreign countries

(c) Persons migrated from Pakistan to India

(d) Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of another country

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Article 6 grants citizenship to persons who migrated to India from Pakistan.

29. Article 9 of the Constitution refers to:

(a) Dual citizenship

(b) Voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship

(c) Registration of foreign nationals

(d) Voting rights for NRIs

Answer – (b)

Explanation – Article 9 states that those who voluntarily acquire foreign citizenship are not Indian citizens.

30. Match the following:

A. Citizenship at commencement – 1. Article 10

B. Regulation by Parliament – 2. Article 11

C. Rights of overseas Indians – 3. Article 8

D. Continuance of citizenship – 4. Article 5

Code: A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 1 4 3 2

Answer – (a)

Explanation:

Article 5 – Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution

Article 11 – Empowers Parliament to make laws regarding citizenship

Article 8 – Rights of citizenship for persons of Indian origin residing outside India

Article 10 – Continuance of citizenship unless otherwise provided by Parliament

Thus, the correct matching is:

A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1 → Option (a).

31. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 14 ensures equality before law.
2. Article 16 provides equality of opportunity in public employment.

Choose the correct statement(s):

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Both statements are true as Articles 14 and 16 form part of the Right to Equality.

32. Article 21 ensures protection of which of the following?

A. Life

B. Personal Liberty

Select the correct answer:

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) A and B

(d) None

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Article 21 guarantees protection of both life and personal liberty to all persons.

33. Consider the following provisions:

1. Right against self-incrimination
2. Protection against ex-post-facto laws
3. Protection against civil imprisonment

Which of the above are included under Article 20?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Article 20 offers protection in criminal cases. Civil imprisonment is not covered under Article 20.

34. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Article) | List-II (Provision)

A. Article 25   - 1. Abolition of Untouchability

B. Article 17   - 2. Freedom of Religion

C. Article 30   - 3. Minority Educational Institutions

D. Article 32   - 4. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Code:

 A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 1 2 3 4

Answer – (a)

Explanation:

Article 25 → Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Freedom of Religion)

Article 17 → Abolition of Untouchability

Article 30 → Right of Minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Article 32 → Right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Right to Constitutional Remedies)

35. Arrange the following Constitutional developments related to Fundamental Rights in the correct chronological order:

I. Right to Education made a Fundamental Right

II. Deletion of Right to Property from Fundamental Rights

III. Provision for reservation in private educational institutions for OBCs

IV. 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)

Code:

(a) II, III, I, IV

(b) III, II, IV, I

(c) II, I, III, IV

(d) I, II, IV, III

Answer – (a)

Explanation –

Deletion of Right to Property (1978)

Reservation for OBCs in private institutions (2005)

Right to Education added (2002, but came into effect later)

EWS reservation (2019)

36. Arrange the following Fundamental Rights in ascending order of their Article numbers:

A. Right to Education

B. Right against Exploitation

C. Right to Equality

D. Right to Freedom of Religion

Code:

(a) C, A, B, D

(b) B, C, A, D

(c) A, B, C, D

(d) D, A, B, C

Answer – (a)

Explanation –

Right to Equality (14–18),

Right against Exploitation (23–24),

Right to Freedom of Religion (25–28),

Right to Education (21A).

37. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available to both citizens and foreigners?

1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 23

Select the correct answer using the code:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – (a)

Explanation:

Article 14 (Equality before law) – Available to both citizens and foreigners.

Article 19 (6 freedoms) – Available only to citizens, not foreigners.

Article 21 (Right to life and personal liberty) – Available to both citizens and foreigners, including foreigners on Indian soil.

Article 23 (Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour) – Available to both citizens and foreigners.

38. Which of the following Articles constitute the ‘Golden Triangle’ of Fundamental Rights?

(a) Article 14, 20, 21

(b) Article 14, 19, 21

(c) Article 14, 15, 19

(d) Article 19, 20, 21

Answer – (b)

Explanation – The ‘Golden Triangle’ of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution consists of:

Article 14 – Equality before law

Article 19 – Freedom of speech and other six freedoms

Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty

This triad was termed the “Golden Triangle” by the Supreme Court in various landmark judgments (e.g., Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978), emphasizing that these rights are interrelated and together form the foundation of the rule of law in India.

39. According to the doctrine of reasonable classification under Article 14, classification must be based on:

1. Intelligible Differentia
2. Arbitrary Discrimination
3. Rational Nexus

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (b)

Explanation – Under Article 14 (Right to Equality), equal protection of the laws does not mean identical treatment to all. Reasonable classification is permitted if it fulfills two tests:

Intelligible Differentia – The classification must be based on a clear and distinguishable basis that sets apart those included from those excluded.

Rational Nexus – There must be a rational connection between the classification and the objective sought to be achieved by the law.

Arbitrary discrimination is expressly prohibited under Article 14, so Statement 2 is incorrect.

40. Match the following cases with the related Fundamental Rights:

1. Kesavananda Bharati – (A) Right to Property
2. Maneka Gandhi – (B) Right to Life and Liberty
3. Indra Sawhney – (C) Reservation in Employment
4. Balaji Raghavan – (D) National Awards

Which of the following is the correct match?

(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

(b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

(c) 1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Answer – (c)

Explanation –

1 → Kesavananda Bharati – Basic structure and Fundamental Rights (Article 13)

2 → Maneka Gandhi – Right to Life & Liberty

3 → Indra Sawhney – OBC Reservation

4 → Balaji Raghavan – Titles/National Awards

41. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Article 29 – Protection of Minority Interests

(b) Article 30 – Establishment of Religious Institutions

(c) Article 19 – Freedom of Movement

(d) Article 22 – Rights of Arrested Persons

Answer – (b)

Explanation – Article 30 relates to minority educational institutions, not religious institutions.

42. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 23 prohibits bonded labour.
2. Article 24 prohibits employment of children in hazardous jobs.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Article 23 prohibits traffic and forced labour. Article 24 bans child labour in hazardous industries.

43. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct code:

List-I (Article) – List-II (Provision)

A. Article 23 – 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings

B. Article 25 – 2. Freedom of Religion

C. Article 30 – 3. Minority Educational Institutions

D. Article 28 – 4. Religious Instruction in Institutions

Code:

(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer – (a)

Explanation:

Article 23 → Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

Article 25 → Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion

Article 30 → Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Article 28 → Prohibition of religious instruction in certain educational institutions

44. Arrange the following developments in the correct chronological order (no years given):

I. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act amended

II. Right to Education became a Fundamental Right

III. Launch of PENCIL portal

IV. Establishment of Child Labour Rehabilitation Fund

Code:

(a) IV, I, II, III

(b) I, IV, II, III

(c) II, I, IV, III

(d) IV, II, I, III

Answer – (d)

Explanation: Fund (1996), RTE (2002), Amendment (2016), PENCIL (2017).

45. Choose the correct ascending order of the following Articles as per their appearance in the Constitution:

A. Article on Religious Freedom

B. Article on Cultural & Educational Rights

C. Article on Right to Freedom

D. Article on Right to Constitutional Remedies

Code:

(a) C, A, B, D

(b) B, C, A, D

(c) A, C, B, D

(d) D, C, A, B

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Let’s check the order of these rights in Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution:

Right to Freedom → Articles 19 to 22

Right to Religious Freedom → Articles 25 to 28

Cultural and Educational Rights → Articles 29 and 30

Right to Constitutional Remedies → Article 32

Thus, in ascending order of article numbers:

Right to Freedom (C) → Religious Freedom (A) → Cultural & Educational Rights (B) → Constitutional Remedies (D)

46. Which Article declares that DPSPs are not enforceable by any court?

(a) Article 36

(b) Article 37

(c) Article 38

(d) Article 51

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Article 37 of the Constitution clearly states that DPSPs are non-justiciable, i.e., not enforceable by any court, though they are fundamental to governance.

47. Choose the true statement from the following:

(a) DPSPs are legally enforceable

(b) DPSPs are justiciable

(c) DPSPs promote political democracy

(d) DPSPs aim at socio-economic justice

Answer – (d)

Explanation: DPSPs are meant to promote social and economic democracy in India, as opposed to the political democracy guaranteed by Fundamental Rights.

48. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 38 directs the State to ensure justice in all institutions of national life.
2. Article 38(2) was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.

Which is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Article 38(2) was actually inserted by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978—not the 42nd.

49. Which of the following is/are Socialist Principles among DPSPs?

1. Article 39
2. Article 47
3. Article 51

Select the correct code:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Article 39 (economic justice) and Article 47 (nutrition, public health) are socialist. Article 51 relates to international peace and is liberal-intellectual.

50. Match the following DPSP Articles with their subject:

List-I (Article) – List-II (Provision)

A. Article 39A – 1. Free legal aid

B. Article 44 – 2. Uniform Civil Code

C. Article 48A – 3. Environment protection

D. Article 43A – 4. Workers’ participation in management

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 2 1 4 3

Answer – (a)

Explanation:

Article 39A → Provides for free legal aid and ensures justice is not denied due to economic or other disabilities.

Article 44 → Directs the state to implement a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens.

Article 48A → Relates to protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

Article 43A → Ensures participation of workers in the management of industries.

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UPPCS Prelims Current Affairs 2025 | 10 Months @ Just ₹199 (Bilingual)

51. Arrange the following Articles in the order they appear in the Constitution:

1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
2. Organisation of Village Panchayats
3. Equal pay for equal work
4. Promotion of International Peace

Code:

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 3-2-1-4

(c) 2-1-3-4

(d) 3-1-2-4

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Order by Article:

1. 39(d) (Equal pay)
2. 40 (Panchayats)
3. 50 (Judiciary)
4. 51 (Peace)

52. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 39A – Legal Aid

(b) Article 45 – Education for children under six

(c) Article 47 – Protection of Monuments

(d) Article 48 – Animal Husbandry

Answer – (c)

Explanation: Article 39A – Provides for free legal aid to ensure access to justice.

Article 45 – Directs the State to provide early childhood care and education for children below six years of age.

Article 47 – Relates to raising the level of nutrition, the standard of living, and improving public health.

Article 48 – Relates to the organization of agriculture and animal husbandry, including the prohibition of cow slaughter.

53. Which of the following were added by the 42nd Amendment Act?

A. Article 39A

B. Article 43A

C. Article 48A

D. Article 43B

Code:

(a) A, B and C

(b) A, B and D

(c) B, C and D

(d) All four

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Article 43B was added by 97th Amendment (2011), others by the 42nd.

54. Article 43A provides for:

(a) Nutrition and public health

(b) Participation of workers in industries

(c) Protection of environment

(d) Promotion of legal aid

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Inserted by the 42nd Amendment, Article 43A promotes workers’ participation in the management of industries to strengthen democracy at workplace.

55. Which case first clarified that Fundamental Rights would prevail over DPSPs in case of conflict?

(a) Golaknath Case (1967)

(b) Minerva Mills Case (1980)

(c) Champakam Dorairajan Case (1951)

(d) Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)

Answer – (c)

Explanation: In State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court held that in case of conflict between FRs and DPSPs, the former would prevail.

56. Which of the following duties was added by the 86th Amendment Act?

(a) Duty to protect environment

(b) Duty to provide education to children

(c) Duty to safeguard public property

(d) Duty to uphold sovereignty

Answer – (b)

Explanation: The 86th Amendment inserted clause (k) in Article 51A, obligating parents to provide education to their children aged 6 to 14 years.

57. Consider the following statements:

1. Fundamental Duties are applicable to all persons in India.
2. They are not enforceable in a court of law.

Choose the correct statement(s):

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Fundamental Duties apply only to citizens (not foreigners), and they are non-justiciable.

58. Who recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?

(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(b) Swaran Singh Committee

(c) Verma Committee

(d) Kothari Commission

Answer – (b)

Explanation: The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, which was accepted and implemented via the 42nd Amendment.

59. Which of the following are civic Fundamental Duties?

A. Respecting Constitution and National Flag

B. Preserving heritage

C. Promoting composite culture

D. Paying taxes

Code:

(a) A and B only

(b) A, B and C

(c) All four

(d) A and C only

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Paying taxes is not listed under Fundamental Duties. Others are clearly mentioned in Article 51A.

60. Assertion (A): Fundamental Duties are only moral obligations.

Reason (R): There are no laws linked to the performance of duties.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct Explanation

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct Explanation

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Answer – (c)

Explanation: While duties are moral, some have legal backing like the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act.

61. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Clause (f) – Preserve composite culture

(b) Clause (g) – Protect natural environment

(c) Clause (i) – Promote harmony

(d) Clause (j) – Strive towards excellence

Answer – (c)

Explanation: clause under Article 51A (Fundamental Duties):

Clause (f): “To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.”

Clause (g): “To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife…”

Clause (h): “To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.”

Clause (i): “To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.”

Clause (j): “To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity…”

Thus, Clause (i) is about safeguarding public property, not promoting harmony, making option (c) incorrect.

62. India’s federal structure is closest to the model of which country?

(a) USA

(b) Switzerland

(c) Canada

(d) Australia

Answer – (c)

Explanation: India follows the Canadian model of federalism with a strong centralizing tendency.

63. How many subjects are there in the Union List after the 101st Amendment?

(a) 97

(b) 98

(c) 100

(d) 102

Answer – (b)

Explanation: The Union List currently has 98 subjects after adjustments including GST.

64. Which of the following features reflect unitary tendencies in the Indian Constitution?

1. Single Constitution
2. Equal state representation
3. Emergency provisions

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) All of the above

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Equal state representation is a federal feature seen in the US, not in India.

65. Consider the following statements about Indian Federation:

1. It is formed by integration like USA.
2. States can propose constitutional amendments.
3. It provides for single citizenship.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) Only 3

Answer – (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect – The Indian Federation is not formed by an agreement among states like the USA. It is a Union of States, created through integration, not through a compact or treaty among sovereign states.

Statement 2 – Incorrect – In India, only Parliament can initiate and propose constitutional amendments under Article 368. States can ratify certain amendments but cannot propose them.

Statement 3 – Correct – India follows single citizenship, i.e., only Indian citizenship, unlike the USA which has dual citizenship (federal and state).

66. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President?

(a) Article 72

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 75

(d) Article 76

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Article 74 mandates a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in exercising his functions.

67. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian parliamentary system?

(a) Collective responsibility

(b) Fusion of powers

(c) Fixed tenure

(d) Dual executive

Answer – (c)

Explanation: Parliamentary system does not provide fixed tenure. It depends on majority support in Lok Sabha.

68. Consider the following statements:

1. President can dissolve Lok Sabha on the advice of Prime Minister.
2. Prime Minister is part of the legislature and the executive.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (c)

Explanation: Both are key features of the Indian parliamentary system—executive is drawn from and accountable to legislature.

69. Which of the following are features of the Indian parliamentary system?

1. Political homogeneity
2. Dual executive
3. Judicial supremacy

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Judicial supremacy is a feature of constitutional review, not a component of the parliamentary structure.

70. Assertion (A): Parliamentary system ensures cooperation between executive and legislature.

Reason (R): Executive is part of legislature and directly accountable to it.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Explanation

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Answer – (a)

Explanation: In a parliamentary system, both organs are interconnected, enabling mutual cooperation.

71. Arrange the following Indian PMs in chronological order:

1. Morarji Desai
2. V. P. Singh
3. Charan Singh
4. Chandra Shekhar

(a) 1–3–2–4

(b) 1–2–3–4

(c) 3–1–2–4

(d) 1–3–4–2

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Chronological order: Morarji Desai (1977), Charan Singh (1979), V. P. Singh (1989), Chandra Shekhar (1990).

72. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that “There shall be a President of India”?

(a) Article 50

(b) Article 51

(c) Article 52

(d) Article 53

Answer – (c) Article 52

Explanation: Article 52 states, “There shall be a President of India.” It establishes the position of the President as the head of the Indian Union.

73. Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications of the President:

1. A candidate must be eligible for election to the Rajya Sabha.
2. A candidate must have completed 35 years of age.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b) Only 2

Explanation: Article 58 requires a candidate to be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha. Also, the minimum age is 35 years.

74. Match the following Presidential veto powers with their characteristics:

List-I (Veto Type) | List-II (Description)

A. Absolute Veto – 1. No action is taken

B. Suspensive Veto – 2. Bill sent back for reconsideration

C. Pocket Veto – 3. Complete rejection of the bill

Code:

  A B C

(a) 3 2 1

(b) 1 3 2

(c) 2 1 3

(d) 2 3 1

Answer – (a) 3 2 1

Explanation:

Absolute Veto = Rejection (3)

Suspensive Veto = Returned to Parliament (2)

Pocket Veto = Bill kept pending indefinitely (1)

75. Arrange the following Presidents of India in chronological order of their term:

1. P. J. Abdul Kalam
2. K. R. Narayanan
3. Shankar Dayal Sharma
4. Pranab Mukherjee

Code:

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 3-2-1-4

(c) 3-1-2-4

(d) 1-2-3-4

Answer – (b) 3-2-1-4

Explanation:

Shankar Dayal Sharma (1992–1997)

K. R. Narayanan (1997–2002)

A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (2002–2007)

Pranab Mukherjee (2012–2017)

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76. Match the articles with their subject matter:

A. Article 52 – 1. Impeachment

B. Article 61 – 2. Election of President

C. Article 54 – 3. There shall be a President

D. Article 123 – 4. Ordinance making power

Code:

  A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 1 3 2

Answer – (a) 3 1 2 4

Explanation:

Article 52 – Existence of President

Article 54 – Electoral College

Article 61 – Impeachment

Article 123 – Ordinance

77. Consider the following about the impeachment of the President:

1. It is initiated in either House of Parliament.
2. Two-thirds majority of members present and voting is required in both Houses.
3. The grounds for impeachment are “violation of the Constitution.”

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer – (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Impeachment is initiated in either House, needs 2/3rd of total membership, and the only ground is “violation of Constitution.”

78. Match the Presidents with their unique distinctions:

A. V. V. Giri – 1. Only President elected as independent

B. Dr. Zakir Hussain – 2. First President to die in office

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad – 3. Only President to serve two terms

D. Giani Zail Singh – 4. Used pocket veto

Code:

  A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 1 3 2

Answer – (a) 1 2 3 4

Explanation:

V.V. Giri – Independent

Zakir Hussain – First to die in office

Rajendra Prasad – Only two-term President

Zail Singh – Pocket veto on Post Office Bill

79. What is the maximum life of an ordinance in India without parliamentary approval?

(a) 3 months

(b) 6 weeks

(c) 6 months

(d) 6 months and 6 weeks

Answer – (d) 6 months and 6 weeks

Explanation: 6 months = maximum gap between two Parliament sessions + 6 weeks after reassembly.

80. Who advises the President on exercise of pardon under Article 72?

(a) Chief Justice of India

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Council of Ministers

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer – (c) Council of Ministers

Explanation: President acts on the advice of CoM; the power is not discretionary.

81. Consider the following statements:

1. Governor has the power to pardon death sentences.
2. President’s veto on Money Bill includes suspensive veto.

Which is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Governor can commute, not pardon death sentence.

Money Bills cannot be returned, hence no suspensive veto on them.

82. Match the Presidents with awards/honours:

A. Dr. Radhakrishnan – 1. Bharat Ratna in 1954

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad – 2. First President of India

C. Dr. Abdul Kalam – 3. Missile Man of India

D. Pratibha Patil – 4. First woman President

Code:

  A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 3 2 1 4

Answer – (a) 1 2 3 4

Explanation: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan → Received Bharat Ratna in 1954 and his birthday (5 September) is celebrated as Teachers’ Day.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad → The first President of India (1950–1962), also the only one to serve two full terms.

Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam → Known as the Missile Man of India for his role in India’s missile and space programs.

Pratibha Patil → The first woman President of India, served from 2007 to 2012.

83. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the office of the Vice-President?

(a) Article 52

(b) Article 63

(c) Article 66

(d) Article 74

Answer – (b) Article 63

Explanation: Article 63 of the Constitution states that “There shall be a Vice-President of India.” This article establishes the constitutional existence of the post.

84. Which of the following is not a qualification for being elected as Vice-President?

(a) Must be a citizen of India

(b) Must have completed 35 years of age

(c) Must be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha

(d) Must not hold any office of profit

Answer – (c) Must be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha

Explanation: The Vice-President must be qualified for election to Rajya Sabha, not Lok Sabha (Article 66(3)).

85. Consider the following statements regarding the removal of the Vice-President:

1. The resolution for removal must be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
2. No grounds are mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Article 67(b) allows Rajya Sabha to initiate the removal with an effective majority, but no specific grounds are stated.

86. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Vice-President is elected by both Parliament and State Assemblies.

(b) The Vice-President is appointed by the President.

(c) The Vice-President draws salary as President.

(d) The Vice-President acts as President in temporary absence of the President.

Answer – (d)

Explanation: Article 65 allows the Vice-President to discharge duties when President is temporarily unable to function.

87. What is the minimum number of electors required to propose and second the nomination of a Vice-President candidate?

(a) 10 proposers and 10 seconders

(b) 20 proposers and 20 seconders

(c) 50 proposers and 50 seconders

(d) No such requirement

Answer – (b) 20 proposers and 20 seconders

Explanation: As per the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.

88. Who is the de facto executive authority under the Indian Constitution?

(a) The President

(b) The Governor

(c) The Chief Justice of India

(d) The Prime Minister

Answer – (d)

Explanation: The President is the nominal (de jure) executive, whereas the Prime Minister is the real (de facto) executive who heads the government and exercises substantial executive authority.

89. Consider the following statements regarding Prime Minister’s Oath:

1. The Prime Minister takes oath to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution.
2. The oath is administered by the Vice-President.

Choose the correct answer:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (d)

Explanation: The PM does not take the President’s oath (which includes “preserve, protect…”). Instead, the PM swears allegiance to the Constitution and is administered the oath by the President, not Vice-President.

90. Consider the following statements regarding Cabinet Committees:

1. They are constitutional bodies.
2. They are headed only by the President.

Choose the correct answer:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (d)

Explanation: Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional, and are headed by the PM or senior Cabinet Ministers, not the President.

91. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Attorney General of India?

(a) He is part of Union Cabinet

(b) He can speak in Parliament

(c) He is not a government servant

(d) He must be eligible to become a Supreme Court judge

Answer – (a)

Explanation: AG is not a member of the Cabinet. He is a legal officer of the Government.

92. Identify the incorrect pair:

(a) Article 74 – Council of Ministers to aid and advise

(b) Article 75 – Other provisions as to Ministers

(c) Article 76 – Duties of Prime Minister

(d) Article 78 – Communication between President and PM

Answer – (c)

Explanation: Article 76 relates to Attorney General, not the duties of the Prime Minister.

93. Assertion (A): The Prime Minister is the real head of the government.

Reason (R): The Constitution grants all executive powers to the Prime Minister.

Code:

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer – (c)

Explanation: The executive power is vested in the President, but exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

94. Arrange the following offices in order of protocol (highest to lowest):

A. Prime Minister

B. Attorney General

C. President

D. Speaker of Lok Sabha

Code:

(a) C – A – D – B

(b) A – C – D – B

(c) C – D – A – B

(d) C – A – B – D

Answer – (a)

Explanation: In terms of constitutional hierarchy: President > Prime Minister > Speaker > Attorney General.

95. Consider the following statements:

1. The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2. The Governor can be impeached by the Parliament.

Choose the correct statement(s):

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. There is no impeachment procedure for the Governor; he can be removed anytime by the President.

96. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Position) – List-II (Related Article)

A. Governor – 1. Article 155

B. Chief Minister – 2. Article 164

C. Advocate General – 3. Article 165

D. State Council of Ministers – 4. Article 163

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Article 155 → Governor is appointed by the President.

Article 164 → Deals with appointment of the Chief Minister and other Ministers by the Governor.

Article 165 → Provides for the office of the Advocate General of the State.

Article 163 → Deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor.

97. Assertion (A): The Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.

Reason (R): The Governor can dismiss the CM even when he enjoys majority in the Assembly.

Code:

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Explanation.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

Answer – (c)

Explanation: The CM holds office during the pleasure of the Governor only as long as he enjoys Assembly’s confidence. Governor cannot remove him arbitrarily.

98. Assertion (A): Advocate General can speak in the State Legislature.

Reason (R): Advocate General is a member of the State Legislature.

Code:

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Explanation

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer – (c)

Explanation: The Advocate General can speak in the Legislature but is not a member.

99. Which of the following statements about State Council of Ministers is true?

(a) It is directly elected by the people

(b) Its advice is not binding on the Governor

(c) It is collectively responsible to the Governor

(d) It includes Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers

Answer – (d)

Explanation: The State CoM has a three-tier structure just like the Union Council of Ministers.

100. Which of the following roles are performed by the Chief Minister?

1. Vice-Chairman of Zonal Council
2. Member of Inter-State Council
3. Chairman of NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) only 1

(c) only 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (a)

Explanation: CM is not Chairman of NITI Aayog (which is PM); CM is Vice-Chairman (rotation) of Zonal Council and Member of Inter-State Council.

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101. Match the following:

A. Article 163 – 1. Duties of CM to Governor

B. Article 164 – 2. Appointment and conditions of Ministers

C. Article 167 – 3. Communication between CM and Governor

D. Article 165 – 4. Advocate General

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 2 1 4 3

Answer – (b)

Explanation:

Article 163 → Deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor; hence relates to the duties of CM to the Governor.

Article 164 → Relates to the appointment of Chief Minister and other Ministers.

Article 167 → Specifies the duties of the Chief Minister, especially communication between CM and Governor.

Article 165 → Provides for the Advocate General of the State.

102. Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s veto power:

1. The Governor can return a money bill for reconsideration.
2. The Governor may reserve any bill for the consideration of the President.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b)

Explanation: The Governor cannot return a money bill for reconsideration. However, he can reserve any bill (including money bills) for the President’s consideration.

103. Consider the following statements:

1. The President is a member of Parliament.
2. A bill cannot become law without the President’s assent.

Choose the correct statement:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b)

Explanation – The President is not a member of either House but is part of Parliament. A bill requires the President’s assent to become law.

104. What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha as per Article 81?

(a) 530

(b) 545

(c) 552

(d) 500

Answer – (c)

Explanation – The Lok Sabha can have a maximum of 552 members – 530 from states, 20 from UTs, and 2 Anglo-Indian nominees (now discontinued).

105. Choose the correct match:

(a) Article 330 – Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Lok Sabha

(b) Article 331 – Nomination of Anglo-Indians

(c) Article 334 – Expiry of reservation provisions

(d) All of the above

Answer – (d)

Explanation – All articles listed are correctly matched with their provisions.

106. Consider the following about Rajya Sabha:

1. It can be dissolved by the President.
2. One-third of its members retire every 2 years.

Which is true?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b)

Explanation – Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber; not subject to dissolution.

107. Consider the following:

1. A person can be a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
2. A person can contest elections from two seats in same house.

Choose the correct option:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both

(d) Neither

Answer – (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect – As per Section 68 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person cannot be a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at the same time. If elected to both, the person must vacate one seat.

Statement 2 – Correct – Under Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person can contest from up to two seats in the same House (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) in any general election or by-election. However, if elected from both, the candidate must vacate one seat.

108. Who administers oath to MPs?

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Speaker

(c) President or person appointed by him

(d) Chief Justice

Answer – (c)

Explanation –According to Article 99 of the Constitution and Third Schedule, every member of either House of Parliament must take an oath or affirmation before taking their seat. The President of India appoints a person (usually the Pro Tem Speaker for Lok Sabha or the Chairperson/Deputy Chairperson for Rajya Sabha) to administer this oath.

Thus, the oath is administered under the authority of the President → Option (c).

109. Consider the following statements:

1. Adjournment sine die ends a session of Parliament.
2. Prorogation is done by the Speaker.

Choose the correct answer:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Adjournment sine die ends a sitting, not a session; prorogation is done by the President, not the Speaker.

110. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct code:

List-I (Motions) | List-II (Purpose)

A. Privilege Motion – 1. Censure a minister

B. Adjournment Motion – 2. Interrupt House business

C. Calling Attention Motion – 3. Ministerial statement

D. No-Confidence Motion – 4. Prove majority

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 1 2 4 3

Answer – (a) 1 2 3 4

Explanation: Privilege Motion → Raised when a Member of Parliament feels a breach of privilege has occurred; often used to censure a minister.

Adjournment Motion → Moved to interrupt the normal business of the House to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance.

Calling Attention Motion → Enables members to call attention to a matter of public importance, requiring a ministerial statement.

No-Confidence Motion → Passed in Lok Sabha only to test/prove the majority of the Council of Ministers.

111. Assertion (A): No-Confidence Motion can only be moved in Lok Sabha.

Reason (R): The Council of Ministers is responsible only to Lok Sabha.

Code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct Explanation.

(c) A is true, R is false.

(d) A is false, R is true.

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to Lok Sabha; hence, the motion is valid only there.

112. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The President can return a Money Bill for reconsideration.
2. The Speaker certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill.

Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill by 14 days.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) All three

Answer – (a)

Explanation: President cannot return a Money Bill; the Speaker’s certification is final.

113. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha but not passed by Lok Sabha – does it lapse upon dissolution?

(a) Yes

(b) No

(c) Depends on the bill type

(d) Only in case of Money Bill

Answer – (b)

Explanation: As per Article 107, a bill pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse upon dissolution of Lok Sabha.

114. Which of the following powers are exclusive to Rajya Sabha?

1. Creation of All India Services
2. Removal of Vice President
3. Approving National Emergency

Code:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Rajya Sabha alone can initiate Vice President’s removal and authorize creation of AIS under Article 312.

115. Who can introduce a Constitution Amendment Bill?

(a) Only the Prime Minister

(b) Any member of either House

(c) Only a Cabinet Minister

(d) The President

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Any MP, minister or private member, can introduce it under Article 368.

116. Consider the following statements:

1. Question Hour is mentioned in Rule Book.
2. Zero Hour is a constitutional device.

Which is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Question Hour is procedural; Zero Hour is neither constitutional nor procedural – it is convention.

117. Which Article provides for joint sitting of Parliament?

(a) Article 123

(b) Article 110

(c) Article 108

(d) Article 107

Answer – (c)

Explanation: Article 108 deals with joint sitting in case of disagreement over ordinary or financial bills.

118. Which article of the Constitution defines the parliamentary privileges in India?

(a) Article 105

(b) Article 123

(c) Article 110

(d) Article 112

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Article 105 outlines the powers, privileges, and immunities of Parliament and its members.

119. Consider the following statements:

1. Parliamentary privileges are codified in the Constitution.
2. The President enjoys all parliamentary privileges.

Choose the correct answer:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (d)

Explanation – Parliamentary privileges are not codified (except two); the President is excluded from these privileges.

120. Zero Hour in Parliament refers to:

(a) First hour of sitting

(b) Period just before adjournment

(c) Hour for raising matters without prior notice

(d) Discussion on motions

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Zero Hour starts after Question Hour and allows raising urgent issues without prior notice.

121. Under Article 169, what is required to create or abolish a Legislative Council in a state?

(a) Presidential assent

(b) Constitutional Amendment

(c) Special majority in State Assembly and law by Parliament

(d) Simple majority in Parliament and State Assembly

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Article 169 allows Parliament to create or abolish Legislative Councils if the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution with a special majority.

122. Which of the following are not correctly matched?

State — No. of Legislative Assembly Seats

(a) Sikkim – 30

(b) Mizoram – 40

(c) Goa – 30

(d) Nagaland – 60

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Goa has 40 members in its Legislative Assembly, not 30.

123. Identify the correct descending order of number of Assembly seats:

(a) Maharashtra > UP > Bihar > Telangana

(b) UP > Maharashtra > Bihar > Telangana

(c) Bihar > Maharashtra > UP > Telangana

(d) Telangana > Bihar > UP > Maharashtra

Answer – (b)

Explanation – UP (403), Maharashtra (288), Bihar (243), Telangana (119).

124. Which article deals with quorum in the State Legislature?

(a) Article 190

(b) Article 188

(c) Article 189

(d) Article 192

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Article 189 specifies that quorum is 1/10th of total members in the House, including the presiding officer.

125. Which of the following is NOT a collective privilege of the State Legislature?

(a) To punish for breach of privilege

(b) To publish reports and debates

(c) To arrest citizens without trial

(d) To exclude strangers from sittings

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Arrest without trial is unconstitutional; it is not a legislative privilege.

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126. Consider the following statements:

1. The retirement age for Supreme Court judges is 65 years.
2. The retirement age for High Court judges is 62 years.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Supreme Court judges retire at 65; High Court judges retire at 62. These are fixed by the Constitution.

127. Match the following:

List-I (Type of Court) — List-II (Constitutional Provision)

A. Supreme Court — 1. Article 214

B. High Court — 2. Article 124

C. Subordinate Court — 3. Article 233

Code:

(a) A-2, B-1, C-3

(b) A-3, B-2, C-1

(c) A-1, B-2, C-3

(d) A-2, B-3, C-1

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Article 124 (Supreme Court), Article 214 (High Courts), Article 233 (appointment of district judges and Subordinate Judiciary).

128. Which one of the following writs is known as the “bulwark of individual liberty”?

(a) Mandamus

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Quo Warranto

(d) Certiorari

Answer – (b)

Explanation – Habeas Corpus is issued to produce a detained person before the court and is considered the protector of individual liberty.

129. Consider the following:

Article 131 – Original jurisdiction of SC

Article 143 – Advisory jurisdiction

Article 141 – Law declared by SC binding

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer – (c)

Explanation – All three are correctly matched.

130. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) National Human Rights Commission – Quasi-Judicial Body

(b) Finance Commission – Quasi-Judicial Body

(c) NITI Aayog – Constitutional Body

(d) Election Commission – Quasi-Judicial Body

Answer – (c)

Explanation – NITI Aayog is neither a constitutional nor a quasi-judicial body. It is an executive think-tank.

131. Choose the correct statement: 

(a) Lok Adalats can hear non-compoundable criminal cases 

(b) Consumer Court cases cannot be mediated 

(c) Gram Nyayalayas follow strict Evidence Act 

(d) Family Courts emphasize conciliation over litigation 

Answer – (d) 

Explanation – Family Courts emphasize conciliation and informal resolution, unlike conventional courts which rely on adversarial litigation.

132. Consider the following statements regarding the CAG:

1. He can be removed by the President as per the pleasure doctrine.
2. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (b) 2 only

Explanation: CAG cannot be removed at the pleasure of the President. He can only be removed like a Supreme Court judge (special majority of Parliament).

133. Match the following Union Territories with their respective High Courts:

Union Territory  High Court

A. Lakshadweep               1. Bombay HC

B. Puducherry    2. Kerala HC

C. Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu            3. Madras HC

Options:

(a) A-2, B-3, C-1

(b) A-3, B-2, C-1

(c) A-1, B-3, C-2

(d) A-2, B-1, C-3

Answer – (a) A-2, B-3, C-1

Explanation: Lakshadweep → Comes under the jurisdiction of the Kerala High Court (A–2)

Puducherry → Comes under the jurisdiction of the Madras High Court (B–3)

Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu → Come under the jurisdiction of the Bombay High Court (C–1)

134. Consider the following statements about the Gram Sabha:

1. It is a permanent body.
2. Its members are elected by direct elections.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both

(d) Neither

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Gram Sabha consists of all registered voters. Members are not elected; it is permanent.

135. Chronologically arrange the following events:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. 73rd Amendment
4. L M Singhvi Committee

Options:

(a) 1-2-4-3

(b) 2-1-3-4

(c) 1-4-2-3

(d) 2-3-1-4

Answer – (a)

Explanation: 1957 (Balwant Rai), 1978 (Ashok Mehta), 1986 (Singhvi), 1992 (Amendment).

136. Which of the following are exempted from the application of the 73rd Amendment?

1. Meghalaya
2. Nagaland
3. Scheduled Areas
4. Tripura

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All four

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Article 243M of the Constitution specifies certain areas to which the provisions of Part IX (Panchayati Raj) do not apply, including:

Nagaland – Exempted due to special constitutional provisions under Article 371A.

Meghalaya – Exempted because areas governed under the Sixth Schedule (tribal areas).

Scheduled Areas – Exempted from Part IX unless extended by law under PESA Act, 1996.

Tripura – Not exempted. The 73rd Amendment applies to Tripura.

137. Under the PESA Act, 1996, at least ______ of total panchayat seats in Scheduled Areas are reserved for STs.

(a) One-third

(b) One-half

(c) Two-thirds

(d) As per population

Answer – (b)

Explanation: Minimum 50% seats are reserved for STs in Scheduled Areas.

138. Chronologically arrange the following events related to urban local governance in India:

1. Madras Municipal Corporation
2. Lord Mayo’s Resolution
3. 74th Constitutional Amendment
4. Cantonments Act

Options:

(a) 1-2-4-3

(b) 2-1-4-3

(c) 1-4-2-3

(d) 4-2-1-3

Answer – (a)

Explanation: 1687 (Madras), 1870 (Mayo), 1924 (Cantonments), 1992 (Amendment).

139. Under Part IX-B, the elections to the board of a cooperative society shall be conducted:

(a) By the Election Commission of India

(b) By the Registrar of Cooperative Societies

(c) By a body designated by the State Legislature

(d) By a committee of members

Answer – (c)

Explanation: The body responsible for elections is decided by the state legislature, as per Article 243ZK.

140. Assertion (A): The governor can repeal a state law in a Scheduled Area.

Reason (R): Scheduled Areas have partial autonomy under the Fifth Schedule.

(a) A and R are true, and R is the correct Explanation

(b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct Explanation

(c) A is true, R is false

(d) A is false, R is true

Answer – (a)

Explanation: The governor may modify, repeal or suspend laws for Scheduled Areas with President’s assent.

141. Match the Articles with their subjects:

A. Article 250 → 1. Laws for implementing international treaties

B. Article 253 → 2. Laws on state list during emergency

C. Article 252 → 3. State request-based central law

D. Article 249 → 4. Rajya Sabha resolution

       ABCD

(a) 4-3-1-2

(b) 2-1-3-4

(c) 2-3-4-1

(d) 4-1-2-3

Answer – (b)

Explanation: These Articles allow Parliament to legislate on state subjects under different circumstances.

142. Which of the following are grounds for the Centre to issue directions to states?

1. Protection of railways
2. Construction of national highways
3. Implementation of treaties
4. Primary education in mother tongue

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Answer – (a)

Explanation: Article 257 allows the Centre to direct states on railways and linguistic minorities’ education.

143. Identify the incorrect pair:

(a) UPSC – Age limit 65 years

(b) SPSC – Appointed by Governor

(c) JSPSC – Created by State Legislature

(d) UPSC – Report to President

Answer – (c) JSPSC – Created by State Legislature

Explanation: JSPSC is created by an Act of Parliament on request of State Legislatures.

144. Match the following Articles with their provisions:

A. Article 341 → 1. Specification of SCs

B. Article 342 → 2. Specification of STs

C. Article 338 → 3. National Commission for SCs

D. Article 338-A → 4. National Commission for STs

(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Answer – (d)

Explanation: The Articles clearly designate the respective constitutional mechanisms for SCs/STs.

145. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 343 – Language of the Union

(b) Article 345 – Official language of a State

(c) Article 348 – Language of the Supreme Court

(d) Article 350B – Directive for promotion of Hindi

Answer – (d)

Explanation – Article 350B provides for a Special Officer for linguistic minorities, not a directive to promote Hindi (that is under Article 351).

146. Which of the following languages was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967?

(a) Konkani

(b) Sindhi

(c) Bodo

(d) Maithili

Answer – (b)

Explanation – Sindhi was the first language added to the Eighth Schedule by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967.

147. Consider the following languages:

1. Marathi
2. Pali
3. Maithili
4. Prakrit

Which of the above were granted classical status in 2024?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer – (b)

Explanation – Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Bengali, and Assamese were added in 2024. Maithili was already in the Eighth Schedule but not granted classical status.

148. Choose the true statement from the following:

(a) Article 359 suspends Fundamental Rights including Article 20 and 21.

(b) Financial Emergency is reviewed every six months.

(c) Article 358 applies only during external aggression or war.

(d) President’s Rule requires approval by special majority.

Answer – (c)

Explanation – Article 358 operates only during war or aggression, not armed rebellion.

149. Which of the following statements is true regarding the ratification of Constitutional Amendment Bills?

(a) Ratification requires 2/3rd of states

(b) Ratification must happen within 3 months

(c) Non-response of a state is considered as ratification

(d) There is no time limit for ratification by states

Answer – (d)

Explanation – The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit for state legislatures to ratify an amendment bill.

150. Match the following Articles with the States they apply to:

A. Article 371F – 1. Karnataka

B. Article 371G – 2. Sikkim

C. Article 371J – 3. Mizoram

Codes:

A B C

(a) 2 3 1

(b) 3 1 2

(c) 1 2 3

(d) 2 1 3

Answer – (a)

Explanation – Article 371F applies to Sikkim, 371G to Mizoram, and 371J to Karnataka.

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