UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1

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Held on December 22, 2024.

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UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 GS Paper 1 Analysis. Question from UPPCS Prelims 2024. UPPCS Prelims Solution.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1

Question 1

Consider the following Peshwas and arrange them in ascending chronological order :

1. Raghunath Rao (Raghoba)
2. Balaji Baji Rao
3. Narayan Rao
4. Balaji Vishwanath

Select the correct below: answer from the codes given

(a) 4, 2, 3, 1

(b) 3, 4, 1, 2

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Answer: (a) 4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation:

Balaji Vishwanath (4) – First Peshwa, appointed in 1713.
Balaji Baji Rao (2) – Son of Balaji Vishwanath, became Peshwa in 1740.
Raghunath Rao (Raghoba) (1) – Uncle of Narayan Rao, briefly assumed power in the mid-18th century.
Narayan Rao (3) – Youngest Peshwa, ruled in 1772 but was assassinated.
Thus, the correct chronological order is 4 → 2 → 1 → 3, making (a) the correct choice.

Question 2

Consider the following statements with reference to early trade :

1. There are references of numerous river-ports in ancient India.
2. There were large entrepots of goods and traffic.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Ancient India had references to numerous river-ports like Pataliputra and Tamralipti, crucial for trade.
2. Large entrepots (trade hubs) like Taxila and Bharuch facilitated the exchange of goods and traffic.

Both statements are correct.

Question 3

Arrange the following Sen rulers of Bengal in ascending chronological order :

1. Ballal Sen
2. Laxman Sen
3. Hemant Sen
4. Vijaya Sen

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 4, 3, 2, 1

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation:

1. Hemant Sen: c. 1095–1096 CE – established the dynasty.
2. Vijaya Sen: c. 1096–1159 CE – expanded its power.
3. Ballal Sen: c. 1159–1179 CE – strengthened its governance.
4. Lakshman Sen: c. 1179–1206 CE – ruled during its decline.
   Hence, the correct answer is (d) 3, 4, 1, 2.

Both statements are correct.

Question 4

Consider the following statements with reference to Bairam Khan: 2 5

1. Akbar gave the title of Khan-i-Khana to Bairam Khan.
2. This title was hot given at the time of appointment of Bairam Khan as Vazir of Empire.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Akbar conferred the title of Khan-i-Khana on Bairam Khan, recognizing his loyalty and service.
2. However, this title was not given when Bairam Khan was appointed as the Vazir (Prime Minister) of the empire but later during his tenure.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 5

Write in descending order the following States on the basis of their population as per Census, 2011:

1. Bihar
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal

Choose the correct answer with the help of the following codes:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

(b) 1,3, 2, 4

(c) 1, 3, 4, 2

(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:
As per Census 2011, the descending order of states based on population is:

1. Uttar Pradesh 199,812.000
2. Maharashtra 112,374, 000
3. Bihar 104,099, 000
4. West Bengal 91,276, 000

Thus, the correct order is 3 → 1 → 4 → 2.

Question 6

 Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

       A    B    C    D

(a)  3    1    4    2

(b)  3    4    1    2

(c)  1    2    3    4

(d)  2    3    4    1

Answer: (a) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:

• Human Development Report (A): Published by the United Nations Development Programme (3).
• World Economic Outlook (B): Published by the International Monetary Fund (1).
• World Investment Report (C): Published by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (4).
• Emissions Gap Report (D): Published by the United Nations Environment Programme (2).

Thus, the correct code is 3 → 1 → 4 → 2.

Question 7

Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activity:

1. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana

2. Rural Employment Generation Programme

3. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana

4. Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3, 4, 1

(b) 4, 2, 1, 3

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 3, 2, 1, 4

Answer: (d) 3, 2, 1, 4

Explanation:

1. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (3): Launched in 1993 to provide self-employment to educated unemployed youth.
2. Rural Employment Generation Programme (2): Introduced in 1995 to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas.
3. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (1): Initiated in 2000 to focus on rural infrastructure development.
4. Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana (4): Launched in 2001 for slum development and housing.

Thus, the chronological order is 3 → 2 → 1 → 4.

Question 8

The following lists I and II shows the name of Economists/Authors and their books respectively. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 1    2    3    4

(b) 2    3    1    4

(c) 3    2    1    4

(d) 2    1    3    4

Answer: (a) 1    2    3    4

Explanation:

• Nicholas Kaldor wrote “Strategic Factors in Economic Development”.
• The Strategy of Economic Development is a 1958 book on economic development by Albert O. Hirschman.
• The Wealth of Nations, work by the Scottish economist and philosopher Adam Smith, first published in 1776
• In 1956 and 1957, in 1957, Gunnar Myrdal Economic Theory and Underdeveloped Regions.

Thus, the correct code is 2 → 3 → 1 → 4.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is not true about “ecological niche”?

(a) Dominant species occupy extensive and broader ecological niche.

(b) Number of species becomes large in ecological niche of natural ecosystem, if resources are sufficient.

(c) Number of species becomes small in ecological niche, if resources are sufficient.

(d) Dominance of single species becomes minimum if the resource distribution is equitable in a habitat.

Answer: (c) Number of species becomes small in ecological niche, if resources are sufficient.

Explanation:
This statement is not true because if resources are sufficient in an ecological niche, the number of species typically increases due to better availability of food, shelter, and other essentials.

• Dominant species occupy broader niches.
• Equitable resource distribution minimizes dominance.

Thus, (c) contradicts ecological principles.

Question 10

Match List-1 with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 1    2    4    3

(b) 3    1    4    2

(c) 2    4    3    1

(d) 2    4    1    3

Answer: (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Explanation:

• A. Simlipal: Located in Odisha (2).
• B. Nokrek: Located in Meghalaya (4).
• C. Agasthyamalai: Located in Kerala (1).
• D. Manas: Located in Assam (3).

Thus, the correct code is 2 → 4 → 1 → 3.

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Question 11

Consider the following statements:

1. Scientific investigation depends on commitment to practical ideals.

2. Honesty is particularly important in science.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

(c) Statement 1 is correct, 2 is not correct.

(d) Statement 1 is correct, 2 is unpredictable.

Answer: (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

1. Scientific investigation relies on commitment to practical ideals such as curiosity, objectivity, and systematic methodology to achieve meaningful and applicable results.
2. Honesty is a cornerstone of scientific inquiry to ensure integrity, reliability, and trustworthiness in research outcomes.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 12

Which of the following is the correct order of plant species from higher to lower order?

(a) Class – Phylum – Order – Plant Kingdom

(b) Order – Class – Phylum – Plant Kingdom

(c) Class – Plant Kingdom – Phylum – Order

(d) Plant Kingdom – Phylum – Class – Order

Answer: (d) Plant Kingdom – Phylum – Class – Order

Explanation:
The hierarchical classification of plant species from higher to lower order is:

1. Plant Kingdom: The broadest category.
2. Phylum: Major divisions within the kingdom.
3. Class: Subdivisions of a phylum.
4. Order: Further divisions within a class.

Thus, the correct order is Plant Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order.

Question 13

Consider the following statements with reference to the Justice Party:

1. The Justice Party opposed Congress by calling it a Brahmin dominated organisation.

2. It claimed the same communal representation for non-Brahmins as the Morley-Minto reforms had given to Muslims.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither I nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Justice Party criticized the Congress, claiming it was dominated by Brahmins and did not represent the interests of non-Brahmins.
2. The party demanded communal representation for non-Brahmins, similar to what the Morley-Minto reforms had provided for Muslims, to ensure their inclusion in governance.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 14

Consider the following statements with reference to the Workers and Peasants Party:

1. The Workers and Peasants Party was formed in 1927 and was given the form of an All India Organisation.

2. The objective of this party was to work within the Congress so that it could be made a more revolution inclined party and an organisation of the common people.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (d) Only 2

Explanation:

1. The Workers and Peasants Party (WPP) was indeed established in 1927, but it was not initially an All-India organization. It began as a regional organization with branches in Bombay, Bengal, and Punjab. Over time, its influence grew, but it was never formally recognized as a nationwide All-India party.
2. The party aimed to work within the Congress to steer it towards a more revolutionary and proletariat-focused ideology, emphasizing the rights and welfare of the common people.

Statement 1 is not completely correct. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Question 15

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:

1. East India Association

2. National Indian Association

3. Indian Society

4. Indian Association

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3

(b) 1, 3, 2, 4

(c) 2, 1, 4, 3

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:
The correct chronological order of events is:

1. East India Association (1866)
   Founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in London to represent Indian interests and provide a platform for discussing issues related to India.
2. National Indian Association (1870)
   Founded by Mary Carpenter in England to promote social reform and education in India. It sought to foster connections between British and Indian people.
3. Indian Society (1872)
   Founded by Anand Mohan Bose and other Indian students in London. The society aimed to address the issues of Indian students and promote their interests.
4. Indian Association (1876)
   Founded by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in Calcutta (now Kolkata). The association focused on political reform and promoting the interests of the educated middle class in India.

Thus, the order is 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 16

Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activity:

1. Royal Indian Navy Revolt

2. Announcement of Cabinet Mission

3. Formation of Interim Government

4. Arrival of a UK Parliamentary Delegation in Delhi

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 4, 3, 2, 1

(b) 4, 1, 2, 3

(c) 4, 2, 1, 3

(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Answer: (b) 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation:
The chronological order of events is:

1. Arrival of a UK Parliamentary Delegation in Delhi (4): Early 1946, to assess the Indian situation.
2. Royal Indian Navy Revolt (1): February 1946, a major mutiny by naval personnel.
3. Announcement of Cabinet Mission (2): March 1946, aimed at discussing constitutional reforms.
4. Formation of Interim Government (3): September 1946, under Jawaharlal Nehru.

Thus, the order is 4 → 1 → 2 → 3.

Question 17

With reference to the Age of Consent Act, 1891 consider the following statements:

1. It was Behramji Malabari, a Parsi reformer from Bombay, who advocated for this legislation.

2. The Act was supported by the extremist wing led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 1

Explanation:

1. The Age of Consent Act, 1891 was indeed advocated by Behramji Malabari, a Parsi reformer from Bombay, to raise the age of marriage for girls.
2. The Act was not supported by the extremist wing, including Bal Gangadhar Tilak, who viewed it as British interference in Indian social and religious practices.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

Question 18

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Shivaji had to face opposition from the big Deshmukhs.

Reason (R): These Deshmukhs were not in favour of an independent Maratha State and wanted to remain as feudal lords of Bijapur.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Shivaji faced opposition from the big Deshmukhs, as they were powerful local chieftains with vested interests.
• Reason (R): These Deshmukhs preferred loyalty to Bijapur as feudal lords rather than supporting Shivaji’s vision of an independent Maratha state, fearing loss of their autonomy.

Thus, both the assertion and reason are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).

Question 19

Which of the following reasons caused catastrophic coral bleaching and mass coral deaths in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(a) Increased industrial activities in the coastal regions

(b) Increase of 2°C temperature in the Indian Ocean

(c) Heavy marine pollution

(d) Decrease of temperature by 4° C in the Indian Ocean

Answer: (b) Increase of 2°C temperature in the Indian Ocean

Explanation:
The increase in sea surface temperature by 2°C due to global warming and climate change led to catastrophic coral bleaching in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Corals expel their symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) under thermal stress, causing bleaching and eventual death if conditions persist.

Question 20

Consider the following statements with respect to Ashoka:

1. The definition of Dhamma given by Ashoka is taken from “Rahulovada-sutta”.

2. In the 14th year of his coronation, Ashoka appointed a new type of staff, called Dhamma-mahamatras.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither I nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (d) Only 2

Explanation:

1. The definition of Dhamma given by Ashoka is not taken from Rahulovada-sutta, as Dhamma in Ashoka’s context was his own philosophy of ethical governance and social responsibility, not directly linked to any Buddhist text.
2. In the 14th year of his coronation, Ashoka indeed appointed Dhamma-mahamatras to spread and enforce his principles of Dhamma across his empire.

Thus, only statement 2 is correct.

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Question 21

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 153 – Office of the Governor

(b) Article 154 – Executive Authority of the Governor

(c) Article 155 – Removal of the Governor

(d) Article 156 – Term of the Governor

Answer: (c) Article 155 – Removal of the Governor

Explanation:

• Article 153: Relates to the Office of the Governor.
• Article 154: Deals with the Executive Authority of the Governor.
• Article 155: Specifies the appointment of the Governor, not removal.
• Article 156: Deals with the term of the Governor, including conditions for removal.

Thus, Article 155 being matched with “Removal of the Governor” is incorrect.

Question 22

Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India?

1. The President shall not be a member of either of the Houses of the Parliament.

2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and both Houses.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 1

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Article 59(1) of the Constitution states that the President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament during their term of office.
2. Statement 2: Article 79 mentions that Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 23

Consider the following statements:

An Amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:

1. Lok Sabha

2. Rajya Sabha

3. State Legislatures

4. President of India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) Only 1

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated:

1. In Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha (Article 368).
2. It cannot be initiated by State Legislatures or the President of India, as their roles come into play only after the amendment process begins in Parliament.

Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 24

Which of the following are the functions of the Election Commissioner of India?

1. Conduct of elections for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Conduct of elections of the Municipal Corporations and Municipalities.

3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of the above elections.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d) None of the above

Explanation:
The Election Commission of India (ECI) does not perform the functions mentioned:

1. The elections for Speaker, Deputy Speaker, and Deputy Chairman are conducted by the respective Houses, not the ECI.
2. The elections of Municipal Corporations and Municipalities are conducted by the State Election Commissions, not the ECI.
3. The ECI does not decide disputes for these elections; disputes are resolved as per specific legal frameworks.

Thus, none of the above statements are correct.

Question 25

Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) G.V.K. Rao Committee – Planning at the Block Level

(b) Dantwala Committee – Rural Credit

(c) Santhanam Committee – Panchayati Raj Finances

(d) Ashok Mehta Committee – Panchayati Raj Institutions

Answer: (a) G.V.K. Rao Committee – Planning at the Block Level

Explanation:

• G.V.K. Rao Committee: Focused on planning at the district level.
• Dantwala Committee: Addressed issues related to rural credit.
• Santhanam Committee: C.Panchayat Raj Finance Corporation had been first recommended by K. Santhanam Committee (1963)
• Ashok Mehta Committee: Recommended reforms for Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Thus, Santhanam Committee is incorrectly matched.

Question 26

Which of the following is the correct sequence of phases of Biotic succession?

(a) Ecesis-Migration – Reaction – Stabilisation

(b) Ecesis-Migration – Stabilisation – Reaction

(c) Migration-Reaction – Stabilisation – Ecesis

(d) Migration – Ecesis Reaction – Stabilisation

Answer: (d) Migration – Ecesis – Reaction – Stabilisation

Explanation:
The correct sequence of phases in biotic succession is:

1. Migration: Arrival of propagules or species to a new area.
2. Ecesis: Establishment of the species in the new environment.
3. Reaction: Interaction between the species and the environment, leading to modifications.
4. Stabilisation: Formation of a stable climax community.

Thus, the correct order is Migration → Ecesis → Reaction → Stabilisation.

Question 27

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Relative humidity decreases with increasing air temperature.

Reason (R): Absolute humidity increases with increasing evaporation.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Relative humidity decreases with increasing air temperature because warm air can hold more moisture, reducing the percentage of saturation for the same amount of moisture.
• Reason (R): Absolute humidity increases with increasing evaporation, as more water vapor enters the air.

The decrease in relative humidity is primarily caused by the air’s increasing capacity to hold water vapor with rising temperature, not solely due to increasing evaporation.
Therefore, R is true but is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 28

Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(a) Ecocline – Biodiversity

(b) Pycnocline – Sea water density

(c) Thermocline – Air temperature

(d) Halocline – Sea water temperature

Answer: (b) Pycnocline – Sea water density

Explanation:

• Pycnocline refers to the layer in the ocean where there is a rapid change in sea water density with depth.
• Other options are incorrectly matched:
  • Ecocline: Refers to a gradient of ecosystem change, not biodiversity.
  • Thermocline: Refers to a rapid change in sea water temperature, not air temperature.
  • Halocline: Refers to a rapid change in salinity, not temperature.

Thus, Pycnocline – Sea water density is the correct match.

Question 29

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 4    3    2    1

(b) 3    4    2    1

(c) 3    4    1    2

(d) 1    2    3    4

Answer: (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation:

• A. Planting Hearth (3): Associated with C.O. Sauer, known for his studies on the origins of agriculture.
• B. Cryophyte Steppe (4): Found in the Arctic Tundra regions.
• C. World Floral Regions (2): Classified by Adolf Engler, a prominent botanist.
• D. Puszta Grassland (1): Located in Hungary, known for its unique grassland ecosystem.

Thus, the correct match is 3 → 4 → 2 → 1.

Question 30

Which one of the following pairs (Aluminium Plant-State) is not correctly matched?

(a) Alupuram (Alwaye) – Kerala

(b) Belagavi – Karnataka

(c) Muri – Chhattisgarh

(d) Hirakud – Odisha

Answer: (c) Muri – Chhattisgarh

Explanation:

• Muri is located in Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh, and it hosts an aluminium plant of Hindalco.
• The other pairs are correctly matched:
  • Alupuram (Alwaye): Kerala.
  • Belagavi: Karnataka.
  • Hirakud: Odisha.

Thus, Muri – Chhattisgarh is incorrectly matched.

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Question 31

Which of the following pairs (National Park State/Union Territory) is not correctly matched?

(a) Rajaji – Uttarakhand

(b) Pin Valley – Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Bandipur – Karnataka

(d) Simlipal – Odisha

Answer: (b) Pin Valley – Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation:

• Pin Valley National Park is located in Himachal Pradesh, not Jammu and Kashmir.
• The other pairs are correctly matched:
  • Rajaji: Uttarakhand.
  • Bandipur: Karnataka.
  • Simlipal: Odisha.

Thus, Pin Valley – Jammu and Kashmir is incorrectly matched.

Question 32

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Himalayas are still rising.

Reason (R): The Indian tectonic plate is colliding with the Eurasian plate.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): The Himalayas are indeed still rising due to tectonic activity.
• Reason (R): The rise is caused by the Indian tectonic plate colliding with the Eurasian plate, resulting in ongoing uplift of the mountain range.

Thus, both the assertion and reason are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).

Question 33

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 3    2    4    1

(b) 2    1    3    4

(c) 4    3    2    1

(d) 4    2    3    1

Answer: (c) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation:

• A. Hutar (4): Located in Jharkhand.
• B. Ib River (3): Located in Odisha.
• C. Tatapani – Ramkola (2): Located in Chhattisgarh.
• D. Umaria (1): Located in Madhya Pradesh.

Thus, the correct match is 4 → 3 → 2 → 1.

Question 34

Match. List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 4    1    3    2

(b) 3    2    1    4

(c) 4    1    2    3

(d) 3    1    2    4

Answer: (c) 4    1    2    3

Explanation:

A. Upper Bari Doab Canal – Ravi (4)

The Upper Bari Doab Canal takes water from the Ravi River and irrigates areas in Punjab, including Amritsar and Gurdaspur.

B. Sirhind Canal – Sutlej (1)

The Sirhind Canal originates from the Sutlej River near Ropar and is one of the oldest canal systems in northern India.

C. Gurgaon Canal – Yamuna (2)

The Gurgaon Canal branches off from the Yamuna River and provides water for irrigation in Haryana.

D. Indira Gandhi Canal – Sutlej, Ravi, Beas (3)

The Indira Gandhi Canal draws water primarily from the Sutlej, Ravi, and Beas rivers through the Rajasthan Feeder and is a key irrigation canal for the Thar Desert.

Thus, the correct match is 4 → 1 → 2 → 3.

Question 35

Which one of the following pairs (Crop Peculiarity) is not correctly matched ?

(a) State where rice is grown three times in a year – West Bengal

(b) Bihar’s contribution to rice production – 15.7%

(c) State with largest area under rice production – Uttar Pradesh

(d) Isohyets that decide western limit of rice production – 100 cm

Answer: Bihar’s contribution to rice production – 15.7%

Explanation:

• Bihar contributes approximately 6-7% to rice production.
• Other pairs are correctly matched:
  • West Bengal grows rice three times a year.
  • The state with the largest area under rice production is Uttar Pradesh.
  • The 100 cm isohyets determine the western limit of rice production.

Thus, option (b) is not correctly matched.

Question 36

Consider the following statements with reference to cotton crops:

1. Cotton is mostly a Kharif crop.

2. Cotton crop requires moderate amounts of rainfall varying between 50-75 cm annually.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Cotton is mostly a Kharif crop, grown during the monsoon season in India.
2. It requires moderate rainfall in the range of 50-75 cm annually and thrives in warm, sunny conditions with well-drained soils.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 37

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).  

Assertion (A): Red soil denotes the second largest soil group of India.

Reason (R): Red soil surrounds the black soil in the south, east and north directions.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Red soil is indeed the second largest soil group in India after alluvial soil.
• Reason (R): Red soil is found surrounding black soil regions, particularly in the south, east, and north, but this is not the reason it is the second largest soil group.

Thus, while both statements are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Question 38

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 2    3    4    1

(b) 4    3    2    1

(c) 1    2    3    4

(d) 3    4    1    2

Answer: (b) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation:

• A. Kanchipuram (4): Planned during the Ancient Period as a major center of learning and religion.
• B. Jaisalmer (3): Developed during the Medieval Period as a fortified city in Rajasthan.
• C. Kodaikanal (2): Established during the Colonial Period as a hill station.
• D. Bhilai (1): Developed Post-independence as an industrial town around the Bhilai Steel Plant.

Thus, the correct match is 4 → 3 → 2 → 1.

Question 39

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 3    2    1    4

(b) 4    1    3    2

(c) 3    2    4    1

(d) 1    3    2    4

Answer: (c) 3, 2, 4, 1

Explanation:

• A. Mango shower (3): Pre-monsoon rainfall in Karnataka Coastal Areas, beneficial for mango cultivation.
• B. Blossom shower (2): Pre-monsoon rain in Kerala, aiding in coffee flowering.
• C. Norwesters (4): Violent storms in West Bengal, locally known as Kalbaisakhi.
• D. Loo (1): Hot, dry winds from Punjab to Bihar during summer.

Thus, the correct match is 3 → 2 → 4 → 1.

Question 40

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Capital – Country

(a) Naypyidaw – Myanmar

(b) Khartoum – Ethiopia

(c) Dublin – Ireland

(d) Ottawa – Canada

Answer: (b) Khartoum – Ethiopia

Explanation:

• Khartoum is the capital of Sudan, not Ethiopia.
• The other pairs are correctly matched:
  • Naypyidaw: Myanmar.
  • Dublin: Ireland.
  • Ottawa: Canada.

Thus, Khartoum – Ethiopia is not correctly matched.

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Question 41

Consider the following statements with reference to Upper Gangetic agro-climatic region:

1. This region encompasses central and western Uttar Pradesh.

2. This region has more than 130% irrigation intensity and 140% cropping intensity.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. The Upper Gangetic agro-climatic region indeed includes central and western Uttar Pradesh, characterized by fertile alluvial soils.
2. The region has high irrigation intensity (more than 130%) and cropping intensity (140%) due to its developed irrigation infrastructure and multiple cropping patterns.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 42

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 1    3    2    4

(b) 3    1    2    4

(c) 1    4    2    3

(d) 3    1    4    2

Answer: (a) 1, 3, 2, 4

Explanation:

• A. Debsa (1): Located at 5360 metres above sea level.
• B. Rohtang (3): Situated at 3978 metres above sea level.
• C. Bara-lacha (2): Positioned at 4850 metres above sea level.
• D. Banihal (4): Found at 2832 metres above sea level.

Thus, the correct match is 1 → 3 → 2 → 4.

Question 43

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Jute is an indigenous plant of India.

Reason (R): Jute is a Kharif crop sown from February to June and harvested from July to October.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.,

(c) 2 Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Jute is indeed an indigenous plant of India, known for its natural fiber production.
• Reason (R): Jute is correctly described as a Kharif crop, sown from February to June and harvested from July to October.
• However, the timing of cultivation does not explain its indigenous origin.

Thus, both statements are true, but (R) does not explain (A).

Question 44

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 2    4    1    3

(b) 1    4    2    3

(c) 3    2    1    4

(d) 4    3    2    1

Answer: (d) 4    3    2    1

Explanation:

• A. Devana Bhatta Smriti Chandrika (4)
• B. Hemadri Chaturvarga Chintamani (3)
• C. Madhvacharya Parashar Madhav (2)
• D. Ballal Sen Dan Sagar (1)
• Thus, the correct sequence is:
• (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Thus, the correct match is 4 → 3 → 2 → 1.

Question 45

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Turkish invasion on India was successful.

Reason (R): There was no political unity in North India.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): The Turkish invasions on India, led by figures like Mahmud of Ghazni and Muhammad Ghori, were successful in establishing dominance.
• Reason (R): The lack of political unity in North India, with fragmented kingdoms and rivalries among regional powers, facilitated the Turkish success.

Thus, both statements are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 46

Consider the following statements regarding Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS):

1. India recently concluded its 2nd Voice of Global South Summit.,

2. The term Global South is related to developed countries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 1

Explanation:

1. India recently concluded its second ‘Voice of the Global South Summit’ (VOGSS), held virtually on 17th November, 2023.
2. The term Global South refers to developing countries, primarily in Asia, Africa, and Latin America, not developed countries.

Thus, statement 1 is correct.

Question 47

What does the Intergovernmental Panel Climate on Change (IPCC) emphasize regarding reductions in greenhouse gas (GHG) emission?

1. Gradual and limited reductions are enough.

2. Deep, rapid and sustained reductions are essential.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b). Neither I nor 2

(c) Only I

(d) Only 2

Answer: (d) Only 2

Explanation:

1. The IPCC does not advocate for gradual and limited reductions in GHG emissions as these are insufficient to mitigate climate change effectively.
2. The IPCC emphasizes the need for deep, rapid, and sustained reductions in greenhouse gas emissions to limit global warming and address climate change.

Thus, only statement 2 is correct.

Question 48

What does the term “Cereal Yield” refer to ?

1. The amount of cereal crops produced per unit unit area of harvested land.

2. The total production of cereal crops in a given country.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (c) Only 1

Explanation:

• Cereal Yield refers specifically to the amount of cereal crops produced per unit area of harvested land (e.g., kilograms per hectare).
• It does not refer to the total production of cereal crops in a country, which is a separate metric.

Thus, only statement 1 is correct.

Question 49

Which of the following statements is true regarding the trend of unemployment rate in India between July-September, 2019 and July-September, 2022 ?

1. It remained the same.

2. It declined.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2 is true and 1 is false.

(b) Both 1 and 2 are false.

(c) 1 is true and 2 is false.

(d) Both 1 and 2 are true.

Answer: (a) 2 is true and 1 is false.

Explanation:

Between July-September 2019 and July-September 2022, India’s unemployment rate declined from 8.3% to 7.2%.

Press Information Bureau

This indicates an improvement in employment levels during this period.

Question 50

Who prepares/publishes the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report?

1. World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF)

2. Oxford Poverty and World Health Organisation (WHO)

3. Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI)

4. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 4

(b) Only 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 3 and 4

Explanation:
The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report is jointly prepared and published by:

1. Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
2. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

These organizations analyze poverty beyond income, considering health, education, and living standards.

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UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

Question 51

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The concept of Sustainable Development was popularised by the Brundtland Report.

Reason (R): The Brundtland Report is also known as “The Limits to Growth”.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): The concept of Sustainable Development was indeed popularized by the Brundtland Report (1987), formally titled “Our Common Future”.
• Reason (R): The Brundtland Report is not known as “The Limits to Growth.” “The Limits to Growth” is a separate report published in 1972 by the Club of Rome.

Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 52

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:

1. World Heritage Day

2. World Thyroid Day

3. World No Tobacco Day

4. International Day of Light

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 3, 1, 2, 4

(b) 1, 4, 2, 3

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4

(d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (b) 1, 4, 2, 3

Explanation:
The chronological order of the events is:

1. World Heritage Day (1): Observed on April 18.
2. International Day of Light (4): Celebrated on May 16.
3. World Thyroid Day (2): Marked on May 25.
4. World No Tobacco Day (3): Held on May 31.

Thus, the order is 1 → 4 → 2 → 3.

Question 53

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 4    1    2    3

(b) 3    1    2    4

(c) 3    2    1    4

(d) 2    1    3    4

Answer: (b) 3    1    2    4

Explanation:

• A. Gopi Thotakura (3): First Indian space tourist.
• B. Dipa Karmakar (1): First Indian gymnast to win gold at the Asian Championship.
• C. Aroh Barjatya (2): Indian-born NASA scientist who led the team studying the solar ecliptic impact on the ionosphere.
• D. Dev Patel (4): British actor who made his directorial debut with the thriller Monkey Man.

Thus, the correct match is 3 → 1 → 2 → 4.

Question 54

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): During 2023-24, Singapore emerged as the largest source of FDI to India.

Reason (R): The India Mauritius Tax Treaty amendment has brought a major shift in countries as major sources of FDI to India.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): During 2023-24, Singapore emerged as the largest source of FDI to India.
  • True. In the fiscal year 2023-24, Singapore was the top source of foreign direct investment (FDI) into India, with investments amounting to $11.77 billion. Financial Express
• Reason (R): The India-Mauritius Tax Treaty amendment has brought a major shift in countries as major sources of FDI to India.
  • True. The amendment of the India-Mauritius Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) in 2016 reduced the attractiveness of Mauritius as an FDI route due to the introduction of capital gains tax on investments. This led investors to seek alternative jurisdictions, notably Singapore, resulting in a shift in FDI sources to India. IJRTE

The amendment to the India-Mauritius tax treaty introduced capital gains tax on investments routed through Mauritius, diminishing its appeal as a tax-efficient investment channel. Consequently, investors redirected their investments through other jurisdictions, particularly Singapore, which offered favorable tax treaties and investment climates. This shift is evident in the FDI inflow patterns, with Singapore becoming the largest source of FDI to India in 2023-24.

Question 55

What is R21/Matrix-M^TM

(a) Vaccine against Malaria developed by Serum Institute of India

(b) Vaccine against Malaria developed by Bharat Biotech International

(c) Vaccine against AIDS developed by Serum Institute of India

(d) Vaccine against AIDS developed by Bharat Biotech International

Answer: (a) Vaccine against Malaria developed by Serum Institute of India

Explanation:

• R21/Matrix-MTM is a malaria vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India in collaboration with the University of Oxford.
• It has shown high efficacy in clinical trials and is aimed at combating malaria, a major public health challenge in tropical regions.

Question 56

Who among the following won the best actress award in the Un Certain Regard category of the Cannes Film Festival, 2024?

(a) Kiara Advani

(b) Anasuya Sengupta

(c) Urvashi Rautela

(d) Sobhita Dhulipala

Answer: (b) Anasuya Sengupta

Explanation: Anasuya Sengupta, hailing from Kolkata, made history by becoming the first Indian actress to win the Best Actress award in the Un Certain Regard category at the 2024 Cannes Film Festival. She received this honor for her role in the Hindi-language film “The Shameless,” directed by Bulgarian filmmaker Konstantin Bojanov.

The Tribune

Question 57

With reference to RudraM-II Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an air-to-air missile.

2. It was tested in Rajasthan in May 2024.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Incorrect. The RudraM-II is an air-to-surface missile, not an air-to-air missile. It is designed to destroy enemy radars and strategic installations.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The missile was successfully tested off the coast of Odisha, not in Rajasthan, in May 2024.

Thus, neither statement is correct.

Question 58

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A     B    C    D

(a) 4    1    2    3

(b) 3    1    2    4

(c) 3    2    1    4

(d) 2    1    3    4

Answer: (c) 3    2    1    4

Explanation:

The correct matching of newly elected heads of state with their respective countries is:

• Gitanas Nausėda – Lithuania
• Luong Cuong – Vietnam
• Halla Tómasdóttir – Iceland
• José Raúl Mulino – Panama

Therefore, the correct code is: (c) 3 2 1 4

Question 59

Which one of the following pairs (Deccan Trap Peculiarity) is not correctly matched ?

(a) Depth of middle trap –  1200 metres approximately

(b) Intertrappean beds – Fossils of sea plants and animals

(c) Depth of lower trap – 150 metres approximately

(d) Depth of upper trap – 450 metres approximately

Answer: (b) Intertrappean beds – Fossils of sea plants and animals

Explanation:

(a) Depth of middle trap – 1200 metres approximately
Correctly Matched.
The middle trap layer of the Deccan Traps is the thickest, with a depth of approximately 1200 meters. This is consistent with geological studies.
(b) Intertrappean beds – Fossils of sea plants and animals
Incorrectly Matched.
Intertrappean beds are sedimentary layers found between volcanic flows of the Deccan Traps. These layers contain fossils, but primarily of freshwater plants and animals, not marine (sea) organisms. The environment during the formation of the Deccan Traps was terrestrial and freshwater, not marine.
(c) Depth of lower trap – 150 metres approximately
Correctly Matched.
The lower trap layer is thinner compared to the middle trap and has an approximate depth of 150 meters, as observed in geological surveys.
(d) Depth of upper trap – 450 metres approximately
Correctly Matched.
The upper trap layer has a depth of around 450 meters, consistent with its position as the topmost and thinner layer compared to the middle trap.

Thus, (c) is not correctly matched.

Question 60

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Jet streams discovered during World War II are high altitude easterly winds.

Reason (R): Jet streams flow with a speed of 300-500 km/hour.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Incorrect. Jet streams are high-altitude westerly winds, not easterly winds, and were indeed discovered during World War II.
• Reason (R): Correct. Jet streams flow at extremely high speeds, typically ranging from 300-500 km/hour.

Thus, (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Question 61

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 3    1    2    4

(b) 3    1    4    2

(c) 2    3    1    4

(d) 4    1    2    3

Answer: (b) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:

• A. Spain – France (3): The Pyrenees Mountains form the natural border between Spain and France.
• B. Switzerland (1): The Alps are a prominent mountain range in Switzerland.
• C. Bulgaria (4): The Balkan Mountains are located in Bulgaria.
• D. Italy (2): The Apennine Mountains run through the length of Italy.

Thus, the correct match is 3 → 1 → 4 → 2.

Question 62

Plants and animals that live on land are called:

(A) Abiotic

(b) Aquatic habitants

(c) Terrestrial habitants

(d) Biotic

Answer: (c) Terrestrial habitants

Explanation:
Plants and animals that live on land are referred to as terrestrial habitants, as they are adapted to land-based environments.

• Abiotic: Refers to non-living components like soil, air, and water.
• Aquatic habitants: Refers to organisms living in water.
• Biotic: Refers to all living organisms, not specific to land.

Thus, terrestrial habitants is the correct term.

Question 63

The joint where the neck joins the head is:

(a) Pivotal joint

(b) Saddle joint

(c) Hinge joint

(d) Ball and socket joint

Answer: (a) Pivotal joint

Explanation:
The joint where the neck joins the head is a pivotal joint, allowing rotational movement of the head from side to side.

• Saddle joint: Found in the thumb, allows movement in two planes.
• Hinge joint: Found in elbows and knees, allows movement in one plane.
• Ball and socket joint: Found in shoulders and hips, allows movement in all directions.

Thus, the pivotal joint is the correct answer.

Question 64

The disease-causing microorganism among these is:

(a) Archaea

(b) Pathogens

(c) Bacteria

(d) Protozoa

Answer: (b) Pathogens

Explanation:
Pathogens are microorganisms that cause diseases in humans, animals, or plants. These include specific types of bacteria, protozoa, viruses, fungi, and other harmful microbes.

• Archaea: Non-pathogenic microorganisms found in extreme environments.
• Bacteria: Some bacteria are pathogens, but not all.
• Protozoa: Some protozoa are pathogenic, but not all.

Thus, pathogens is the broad term that directly refers to disease-causing microorganisms.

Question 65

Milk is an example of:

(a) Foam

(b) Sol

(c) Aerosol

(d) Emulsion

Answer: (d) Emulsion

Explanation:
Milk is an emulsion, a mixture of two immiscible liquids (fat and water) where fat droplets are dispersed in water.

• Foam: Gas dispersed in a liquid (e.g., whipped cream).
• Sol: Solid particles dispersed in a liquid (e.g., paint).
• Aerosol: Liquid or solid particles dispersed in a gas (e.g., fog).

Thus, milk is best classified as an emulsion.

Question 66

The formula of baking soda is:

(a) KHCO3

(b) Na2CO3

(c) K2CO3

(d) NaHCO3

Answer: (d) NaHCO3

Explanation:
The formula of baking soda is sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3). It is a chemical compound used as a leavening agent in baking and for other purposes like neutralizing acids.

• KHCO3: Potassium bicarbonate.
• Na2CO3: Sodium carbonate (washing soda).
• K2CO3: Potassium carbonate.

Thus, the correct formula for baking soda is NaHCO3.

Question 67

CPR stands for:

(a) Cardio Programme Rescue

(b) Cardiac Pulsatile Revision

(c)  Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

(d) Cardiopulmonary Revision

Answer: (c) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

Explanation:
CPR stands for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation, a life-saving procedure performed during emergencies like cardiac arrest. It involves chest compressions and artificial ventilation to maintain blood flow and oxygen supply to vital organs until professional medical help arrives.

The other options are incorrect as they do not describe CPR accurately.

Question 68

The only vein that carries oxygenated blood is:

(a) Pulmonary vein

(b) Cystic vein

(c) Cardiac vein

(d) Hepatic Portal vein

Answer: (a) Pulmonary vein

Explanation:
The pulmonary vein is the only vein in the body that carries oxygenated blood. It transports oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart for circulation to the rest of the body.

• Cystic vein: Drains blood from the gallbladder.
• Cardiac vein: Drains deoxygenated blood from the heart muscle.
• Hepatic Portal vein: Carries nutrient-rich but deoxygenated blood from the digestive organs to the liver.

Thus, the pulmonary vein is unique in carrying oxygenated blood.

Question 69

Diabetes is the most common disorder associated with:

(a) Kidney

(b) Gall bladder

(c) Liver

(d) Pancreas

Answer: (d) Pancreas

Explanation:
Diabetes is most commonly associated with the pancreas, as it results from the pancreas’s inability to produce enough insulin (Type 1 diabetes) or the body’s ineffective use of insulin (Type 2 diabetes). Insulin is a hormone critical for regulating blood sugar levels.

• Kidney: May be affected later as a complication of diabetes (diabetic nephropathy).
• Gall bladder: Not directly related to diabetes.
• Liver: Can be indirectly affected due to abnormal glucose metabolism.

Thus, the pancreas is the primary organ associated with diabetes.

Question 70

The recent global pause during COVID-19 pandemic was caused due to:

(a) SARS-CoV-1

(b) H5NI

(c) SARS-CoV-2

(d) MERS – COV-2

Answer: (c) SARS-CoV-2

Explanation:
The COVID-19 pandemic was caused by the novel coronavirus SARS-CoV-2. It led to a global health crisis, widespread lockdowns, and significant disruptions across all sectors.

• SARS-CoV-1: Caused the SARS outbreak in 2002-2003.
• H5N1: A strain of avian influenza.
• MERS-CoV: Caused the Middle East Respiratory Syndrome in 2012.

Thus, the correct cause of the COVID-19 pandemic is SARS-CoV-2.

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Question 71

A bus covers the first half of a certain distance with speed v1 and the second half with a speed v2. The average speed during the whole journey is:
(a) v1v2/(v1+v2)
(b) 2v1v2/(v1+v2)
(c) (v1+v2)/2
(d) √v1v2

Answer: (b) 2v1v2/(v1+v2)

Explanation:
The average speed (vavgv_{avg}vavg​) for the whole journey when the distances are equal is calculated using the harmonic mean of the two speeds:2v1v2/(v1+v2)

This formula applies when the journey is divided into two equal parts by distance. The other options do not represent the correct formula for average speed under these conditions.

Question 72

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched regarding peculiarities of Ramganga project?

(a) Dam’s length – 825-8 metres

(b) Hydropower generation capacity – 198 MW

(c) Location – Garhwal (Uttarakhand)

(d) Irrigated area – 6 lac hectares

Answer: (a) Dam’s length – 825-8 metres

Explanation:

• The dam is a 128 m (420 ft) tall and 630 m (2,067 ft) long
• hydropower generation capacity is 198 MW.
• Location: Garhwal, Uttarakhand.
• Irrigated area: Around 6 lakh hectares.

Thus, (a) is not correctly matched.

Question 73

Consider the following statements with reference to cultivated area of some countries of the world:

1. In comparison to USA, China and Japan, India has highest geographical area under cultivation.

2. India’s location in tropical monsoon, region helps diversified cropping all through the year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only I

(d) Only 2

Answer:(a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: correct. India has a significant geographical area under cultivation,and have the highest cultivated area compared to countries like the USA. The USA has a larger area under cultivation due to its vast geographical size.
2. India 1,765,260 square km
3. United States 1,681,826 square km
4. Statement 2: Correct. India’s location in the tropical monsoon region allows for a diversified cropping pattern throughout the year due to favorable climatic conditions.

Thus, both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 74

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 4    1    2    3

(b) 2    3    1    4

(c) 4    1    3    2

(d) 2    4    1    3

Answer: (d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Explanation:

• A. Devprayag (2): Confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi, forming the Ganga.
• B. Rudraprayag (4): Confluence of Alaknanda and Mandakini rivers.
• C. Karnaprayag (1): Confluence of Alaknanda and Pindar rivers.
• D. Tehri (3): Confluence of Bhagirathi and Bhilangna rivers.

Thus, the correct match is 2 → 4 → 1 → 3.

Question 75

Consider the following statements with respect to the climate of Western Europe:

1. Western Europe receives rainfall in all months.

2. Western Europe is located in the belt of Westerlies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither I nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. Western Europe experiences rainfall throughout the year due to the influence of the North Atlantic Drift and the Westerlies.
2. Statement 2: Correct. Western Europe lies in the belt of Westerlies, which are prevailing winds that bring moist air and rainfall to the region.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 76

Consider the following mountains and arrange them in correct order from We from West to East by their location

1. Karakoram

2. Pontic

3. Hindu Kush

4. Zagros

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 2, 4, 3, 1

(b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1

(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer: (a) 2, 4, 3, 1

Explanation:
The correct order of the mountains from West to East is:

1. Pontic (2): Found in northern Turkey along the Black Sea coast.
2. Zagros (4): Located in western Iran, stretching towards the Persian Gulf
3. Hindu Kush (3): Located in Afghanistan and northern Pakistan.
4. Karakoram (1): Situated in northern Pakistan, India, and China.

Thus, the correct order is 2 → 4 → 3 → 1.

Question 77

Which one of the following pairs (River – Direction) is not correctly matched ?

(a) Amur river – North-East

(b) Syr Darya – North-West

(c) Angara river – North

(d) Mekong river – South-West

Answer: (d) Mekong river – South-West

Explanation:
The Mekong River flows in a South-East direction, not South-West, as it originates in Tibet and flows through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam, eventually emptying into the South China Sea.

Other pairs are correctly matched:

• Amur River: Flows North-East between Russia and China.
• Syr Darya: Flows North-West in Central Asia.
• Angara River: Flows North from Lake Baikal in Russia.

Thus, (d) is not correctly matched.

Question 78

Which one of the following pairs (Country – Oil field) is not correctly matched?

(a) Iran – Haft Kel

(b) Kuwait – Kashagan

(c) Saudi Arabia – Dhahran

(d) Iraq – Zubair

Answer: (b) Kuwait – Kashagan

Explanation:
The Kashagan oil field is not located in Kuwait; it is situated in the Caspian Sea region of Kazakhstan.

Other pairs are correctly matched:

• Iran – Haft Kel: A major oil field in Iran.
• Saudi Arabia – Dhahran: A key oil production area in Saudi Arabia.
• Iraq – Zubair: A prominent oil field in Iraq.

Thus, (b) is not correctly matched.

Question 79

Consider the following statements with reference to Mediterranean climate:

1. It receives rainfall in winter season.

2. Due to winter solstice, air pressure belts shift to the South.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. The Mediterranean climate is characterized by winter rainfall, influenced by westerly winds and cyclonic activity during this season.
2. Statement 2: Correct. During the winter solstice, the air pressure belts shift southward, bringing the westerlies and associated rainfall to the Mediterranean region.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 80

With reference to the Anti-Maoist operation that took place in April 2024, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It took place in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.

2. The operation was launched by BSF and District Reserve Guards.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only I

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Incorrect. The anti-Maoist operation in April 2024 took place in Kanker district of Chhattisgarh, not Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.
2. Statement 2: Correct. The operation was conducted jointly by the Border Security Force (BSF) and District Reserve Guards (DRG), targeting Maoist hideouts.

Thus, only Statement 2 is correct.

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Question 81

With reference to “PraVaHa” software developed by ISRO, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a path-breaking feat by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre.

2. Initial aerodynamic design of space vehicles requires evaluation of large number of configurations.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: PraVaHa is a Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software developed by ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC). ISRO
2. Statement 2: The software is designed to simulate external and internal flows on aerospace vehicles, aiding in the evaluation of various configurations during initial aerodynamic design studies. ISRO

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Question 82

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In April 2024, India delivered the BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile to Philippines.

Reason (R): The Missile has a range of 490 kilometres.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (k) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation: In April 2024, India delivered the first batch of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines.

NewsX The BrahMos missile has a range of up to 290 km, with ongoing developments to extend its range further.

Question 83

With reference to the “Kohima Peace Memorial and Eco-Park” which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Its inauguration programme was held on 8th March, 2024 at Kohima.

2. It will be developed by South Korea.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: The Kohima Peace Memorial and Eco-Park were inaugurated on May 8, 2024, in Kohima, Nagaland.

India Today NE The project was a collaborative effort between the Government of Japan, the Japanese International Cooperation Agency (JICA), and the Government of Nagaland.

Question 84

With reference to “Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme” (MATES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This is a bilateral framework between India and Australia.

2. In this scheme Indian graduates (aged 18-30) with knowledge and skills in specific fields of study will be offered to live and work in Australia for up to two years.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES) is a bilateral framework between India and Australia. It allows Indian university graduates and early career professionals to live and work in Australia for up to two years.

Minister for Home Affairs

Eligible participants are Indian nationals aged 30 or younger, with proficient English skills, who have graduated within the past two years in fields such as renewable energy, mining, engineering, ICT, artificial intelligence, financial technology, or agricultural technology.

Home Affairs

The scheme is set to commence in late 2024, with an annual cap of 3,000 visas. Participants can bring dependents, who will have work rights in Australia.

Minister for Home Affairs

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Question 85

With reference to the International Conference on Nuclear Security (ICONS-2024), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This conference was held on 25th May, 2024.

2. India has recently reconstituted an inter-ministerial Counter Nuclear Smuggling Team (CNST) to strengthen the nuclear security.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(c) Only 1

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Both1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 2

Explanation:

The International Conference on Nuclear Security (ICONS 2024) was held from 20th to 24th May 2024 in Vienna, Austria.

International Atomic Energy Agency

In his statement at the conference, India’s Ambassador and Permanent Representative, Mr. Shambhu S. Kumaran, highlighted that India has recently reconstituted an inter-ministerial Counter Nuclear Smuggling Team (CNST). This initiative aims to strengthen the nuclear security regime by encompassing prevention, detection, investigation (including forensic support), and prosecution of acts of smuggling. It also seeks to enhance the inter-agency platform for information exchange, coordination, and cooperation to counter nuclear smuggling incidents.

Department of Atomic Energy

Question 86

With reference to the “Pirul Lao-Paise Pao” campaign, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This is related to reduce forest fires and to provide a source of income to villagers.

2. The Chief Minister of Uttarakhand launched this campaign.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The “Pirul Lao-Paise Pao” campaign was launched by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Pushkar Singh Dhami on May 8, 2024, in Rudraprayag district. The initiative aims to reduce forest fires by encouraging locals to collect dry pine leaves (Pirul), which are highly inflammable and a major cause of forest fires in the region. Participants are compensated at ₹50 per kilogram of collected Pirul, providing both an environmental benefit and a source of income for villagers.

The campaign is managed by the Uttarakhand Pollution Control Board, with a designated fund of ₹50 crore allocated for this purpose. The collected Pirul is processed and sold to industries, including its use in power generation. This initiative not only addresses the issue of forest fires but also creates livelihood opportunities for local communities.

Question 87

With reference to Nepal-India International Sanskrit Conclave – 2024″, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was held at New Delhi.

2. This three-day conclave was organised by the Niti Anusandhan Pratisthan.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 2

Explanation: The Nepal-India International Sanskrit Conclave was held in Kathmandu, Nepal, from March 27 to 29, 2024. This three-day event was organized by the Neeti Anusandhan Pratisthan, Nepal, in collaboration with the Central Sanskrit University, New Delhi, and the India Foundation, New Delhi.

The Nepal Weekly

Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect, as the conclave was not held in New Delhi. Statement 2 is correct, as the Neeti Anusandhan Pratisthan, Nepal, was one of the organizers of the event.

Question 88

With reference to “Lunar Polar Exploration Mission” (LUPEX), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This is an India – Japan partnership for their joint moon mission which shall be launched in the future.

2. JAXA is responsible for developing the lander for the mission, while ISRO is handling the rover and launch vehicle.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. The Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX) is a joint moon mission between India (ISRO) and Japan (JAXA), planned for future exploration of the lunar south pole.
2. Statement 2: Incorrect. In this mission, JAXA is developing the rover, while ISRO is responsible for the lender and the launch vehicle (GSLV Mk III).

Question 89

With reference to “Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment” (GECP), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Tamil Nadu School Education Department issued these guidelines on 26th April, 2024.

2. These guidelines are focussed on safeguarding the physical and mental well-being of students.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Tamil Nadu School Education Department issued the “Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment” (GECP) on April 26, 2024, focusing on safeguarding students’ physical and mental well-being.

Kalviseith Official These guidelines aim to eliminate corporal punishment and address any form of harassment in schools. They emphasize creating a safe and nurturing environment for students, conducting awareness programs, and establishing monitoring committees in each school to oversee implementation. Therefore, both statements are correct.

Question 90

With reference to “FLY91” which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a newly launched airline in India.

2. Its inaugural flight took off from Manohar International Airport on 18th March, 2024.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: FLY91 is a newly launched regional airline in India. Its inaugural flight took off from Manohar International Airport in Goa on March 12, 2024, connecting to Agatti in Lakshadweep.

ThePrint The airline commenced scheduled commercial flights on March 18, 2024, with routes including Goa to Bengaluru and Hyderabad.

Economic Times Travel

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Question 91

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

(a) 2    3    1    4

(b) 4    3    2    1

(c) 1    2    3    4

(d) 3    4    1    2

Answer: (b) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation:

• A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin (4): Launched in November 2016 to provide housing for the rural poor.
• B. Jal Jeevan Mission (3): Launched in August 2019 to ensure tap water supply to every household.
• C. Swachh Bharat Mission – Gramin (2): Launched in October 2014 for rural sanitation and elimination of open defecation.
• D. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (1): Launched in May 2016 to provide free LPG connections to poor households.

Thus, the correct match is 4 → 3 → 2 → 1.

Question 92

Which indicators are used, in Human Development Index (HDI)?

1. Income level

2. Education

3. Condition of environment

4. Life expectancy

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 1 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2 and 4

(d) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:
The Human Development Index (HDI) uses the following indicators:

1. Income level: Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.
2. Education: Assessed through mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling.
3. Condition of environment: Not included in HDI.
4. Life expectancy: Indicates the health dimension by measuring average life span.

Thus, the correct indicators are 1, 2, and 4.

Question 93

Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Swachh Bharat Mission

2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana

3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana

4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme

Codes:

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 4, 2, 1, 3

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:
The schemes in chronological order of their launch are:

1. Swachh Bharat Mission (2014): Launched to promote sanitation and eliminate open defecation.
2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (2015): Introduced to enhance skills and employability.
3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (2016): A scheme for income declaration and welfare of the poor.
4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme (2017): Launched to empower rural women.

Thus, the correct order is 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.

Question 94

Malthus argued that the population grows is a ……. progression, while agricultural production/food supply grows in a ……… progression.

From the following options, choose the correct answer to fill in the blanks:

(a) Linear, Exponential

(b) Exponential, Linear

(c) Arithmetic, Geometric

(d) Geometric, Arithmetic

Answer: (d) Geometric, Arithmetic

Explanation:
Malthus argued in his “Theory of Population” that:

• Population grows in a geometric progression (exponentially, doubling over time).
• Food supply grows in an arithmetic progression (linearly, increasing incrementally).

This imbalance, he suggested, could lead to overpopulation and scarcity of resources.

Question 95

According to the Economic Survey, 2022-23, what fiscal policy response did the Government of India undertake in response to the aggravated global supply disruptions?

1. Decreasing food and fertiliser subsidies

2. Increasing taxes on fuel and imported products

3. Reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:
According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, the Government of India responded to global supply disruptions by:

• Reducing taxes on fuel (e.g., excise duty on petrol and diesel) and
• Lowering tariffs on certain imported products to mitigate inflation and ensure supply chain stability.

Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect as the government increased subsidies on food and fertilizers to support citizens and did not increase taxes on fuel.

Question 96

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 2    3    4    1

(b) 2    4    1    3

(c) 1    2    3    4

(d) 3    2    1    4

Answer: (a) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation:

• A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (2): Beneficiary contributes ₹55-₹200 per month depending on their age.
• B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (3): Annual premium of ₹436.
• C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (4): Annual premium of ₹20.
• D. Atal Pension Yojana (1): Beneficiary’s contribution depends on the pension amount chosen.

Thus, the correct match is 2 → 3 → 4 → 1.

Question 97

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Development is being defined as improving living standards and welfare.

Reason (R): Growth in per capita income is not a sufficient measure of development.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Correct. Development involves improving living standards, welfare, and overall quality of life, beyond just economic metrics.
• Reason (R): Correct. Growth in per capita income alone does not fully measure development, as it overlooks inequalities, access to healthcare, education, and environmental sustainability.

Thus, both statements are true, and (R) provides the correct explanation for (A).

Question 98

Which measures are essential to achieve Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Targets, 2030?

1. Making education free and compulsory

2. Improving basic school infrastructure and embracing digital transformation

3. Expansion of agricultural programmes

4. Increasing investment in technology

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(c) Only 1

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) focuses on ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities.

• Making education free and compulsory (1): This ensures accessibility for all children.
• Improving basic school infrastructure and embracing digital transformation (2): Enhances learning environments and prepares students for the future.
• Expansion of agricultural programmes (3): Not directly related to education.
• Increasing investment in technology (4): Relevant but not specifically part of Goal 4.

Thus, 1 and 2 are essential measures for achieving Goal 4.

Question 99

Which of the following freedoms is not guaranteed by the Indian Constitution under Article 19?

(a) Freedom to assemble/peacefully and without arms

(b) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property

(c) Freedom to move freely throughout the country

(d) Freedom to practise any trade or profession

Answer: (b) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property

Explanation:

• Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees six fundamental freedoms, which include:
  • Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms (a).
  • Freedom to move freely throughout the country (c).
  • Freedom to practise any trade or profession (d).
• Freedom to own, acquire, and dispose of property was initially included under Article 19(1)(f) but was removed by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, and made a legal right under Article 300A instead of a fundamental right.

Thus, (b) is not guaranteed under Article 19.

Question 100

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): According to the Constitution of India, the same person cannot function as the Governor of two or more States at the same time.

Reason (R): Article 153 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Governor for each State.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Incorrect. The Constitution of India allows the same person to function as the Governor of two or more states simultaneously, as per Article 153.
• Reason (R): Correct. Article 153 states that “There shall be a Governor for each State,” but this does not prevent one person from being appointed Governor for more than one state.

Thus, (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Question 101

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a) Equality before Law – Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens

(b) Equality of opportunity in public employment  – Guaranteed only to Indian citizens

(c) Creating a new State – Power of Parliament

(d) Altering the name of a State – Power of a State Legislature

Answer: (d) Altering the name of a State – Power of a State Legislature

Explanation:

• Equality before Law (a): Correct. This is guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens under Article 14.
• Equality of opportunity in public employment (b): Correct. Guaranteed only to Indian citizens under Article 16.
• Creating a new State (c): Correct. The Parliament has the power to create new states under Article 3.
• Altering the name of a State (d): Incorrect. This power lies with the Parliament, not the State Legislature, under Article 3.

Thus, (d) is not correctly matched.

Question 102

Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 3    1    2    4

(b) 4    1    3    2

(c) 1    3    2    4

(d) 1    2    3    4

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 2, 4

Explanation:

• A. Consolidated Fund of India (1): Mentioned in Article 266 of the Indian Constitution.
• B. Finance Commission (3): Defined in Article 280 for recommending the distribution of financial resources.
• C. Financial Emergency (2): Described in Article 360, dealing with financial stability during crises.
• D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (4): Specified in Article 148 for auditing government accounts.

Thus, the correct match is 1 → 3 → 2 → 4.

Question 103

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Abolition of untouchability

2. Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour

3. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

4. Protection of interests of minorities

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (a) 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Right against Exploitation in the Indian Constitution includes:

1. Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour under Article 23.
2. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines under Article 24.

• Abolition of untouchability (1): Covered under Article 17 as a separate right.
• Protection of interests of minorities (4): Covered under Articles 29 and 30, part of cultural and educational rights.

Thus, only 2 and 3 are part of the Right against Exploitation.

Question 104

Which one of the following groups have only input devices?

(a) Mouse, Keyboard, Printer

(b) Mouse, Keyboard, Projector

(c) Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor

(d) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner

Answer: (d) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner

Explanation:

• Input devices are used to provide data to the computer.
  • Mouse: Used to interact with graphical user interfaces.
  • Keyboard: Used to input text and commands.
  • Scanner: Used to input physical documents into a digital format.
• Printer, Projector, and Monitor are output devices that display or produce results, so options (a), (b), and (c) are incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is (d).

Question 105

The content of computer memory which is non-volatile, even when the power goes off is :

(a) REM

(b) RAM

(c) ROM

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) ROM

Explanation:

• ROM (Read-Only Memory): A type of computer memory that is non-volatile, meaning its contents remain intact even when the power is turned off. It stores firmware and essential instructions for the computer.
• RAM (Random Access Memory): Volatile memory that loses its contents when the power goes off.
• REM: Not a type of computer memory.

Thus, the correct answer is (c) ROM.

Question 106

Which of the following is a correct relationship between Fahrenheit ( F ) and Celsius (C ) degrees?

(a) C = 9/5 F + 32

(b)  C= F – 273.15

(c) F = 9/5 C + 32

(d) F= C – 273.15

Answer: (c) F=95C+32F = \frac{9}{5} C + 32F=59​C+32

Explanation:
The correct relationship between Fahrenheit (FFF) and Celsius (CCC) is:F=95C+32F = \frac{9}{5} C + 32F=59​C+32

• This formula converts Celsius temperatures to Fahrenheit.
• Option (a) incorrectly reverses the roles of CCC and FFF.
• Options (b) and (d) reference the Kelvin to Celsius conversion (C=K−273.15C = K – 273.15C=K−273.15), not Fahrenheit.

Thus, the correct answer is (c).

Question 107

Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) Chromosomes are composed of DNA and Protein.

(b) Nucleus of a cell does not play a role in cellular reproduction.

(c) Chromosomes contain information for inheritance.

(d) Functional segment of DNA is called genes.

Answer: (b) Nucleus of a cell does not play a role in cellular reproduction.

Explanation:

• The nucleus plays a critical role in cellular reproduction by controlling the process of cell division and ensuring the proper distribution of chromosomes to daughter cells.
• Other statements are correct:
  • Chromosomes are composed of DNA and proteins.
  • Chromosomes carry genetic information for inheritance.
  • Functional segments of DNA are called genes.

Thus, (b) is not true.

Question 108

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): CO2, SO2 and NO2 gases get dissolved in rain water and produce acid rain.

Reason (R): Atmospheric air is polluted due to high concentration of gases like carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Correct. Gases like CO2, SO2, and NO2 dissolve in rainwater to form acids such as carbonic acid, sulfuric acid, and nitric acid, leading to acid rain.
• Reason (R): Correct. High concentrations of carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere, due to pollution, contribute to the formation of acid rain.

Thus, (R) correctly explains (A), making the correct answer (a).

Question 109

With reference to the 7th India – Indonesia Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In this meeting Indonesia agreed to enhance collaboration in the areas of defence, industry, maritime security and multilateral cooperation.

2. This meeting was held at Jakarta on May 5, 2024.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 1

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Correct. During the 7th India-Indonesia Joint Defence Cooperation Committee (JDCC) meeting, Indonesia agreed to enhance collaboration in areas such as defence industry, maritime security, and multilateral cooperation. Press Information Bureau
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The meeting was held in New Delhi on May 3, 2024, not in Jakarta on May 5, 2024. Press Information Bureau

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Only 1.

Question 110

With reference to “FWD 200B”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This is India’s first indigenous bomber “UAV” aircraft.

2. Its payload capacity is 100 kgs.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. The FWD 200B is India’s first indigenous bomber UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle), developed by Flying Wedge Defence and Aerospace Technologies. It marks a significant milestone in India’s defense capabilities.
2. Statement 2: Correct. The payload capacity of the FWD 200B is 100 kg, allowing it to carry optical surveillance equipment and precision-strike weapons.

Thus, both statements are correct.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

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Question 111

With reference to “India – Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement (Ind – Aus ECTA),” which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This is a first-of-its-kind initiative of FTAs.

2. The meeting was attended by the Commerce Secretary of India, Shri Sunil Barthwal.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only I

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. First-of-its-kind Initiative: The India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (Ind-Aus ECTA) is notable as it is the first Free Trade Agreement (FTA) that India has signed with a major developed country in over a decade.
2. Attendance of Commerce Secretary: The first Joint Committee Meeting (JCM) under the Ind-Aus ECTA was held in Canberra, Australia, on 29 April 2024. The Indian delegation was led by Commerce Secretary Shri Sunil Barthwal, who engaged in discussions with Australian counterparts to deepen economic relations between the two countries. Diplomacy Beyond

Therefore, both statements are correct, making option (d) the right choice.

Question 112

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 3    4    1    2

(b) 3    2    4    1

(c) 4    2    1    3

(d) 2    3    1    4

Answer: (b) 3    2    4    1

Explanation:

he correct matching of the joint exercises with their respective dates is:

• A. India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise, “DUSTLIK”: 15th to 28th April 2024. Press Information Bureau
• B. India-France Joint Military Exercise, “SHAKTI”: 13th to 26th May 2024. Press Information Bureau
• C. Harbour phase of Indo-US Joint Exercise, Tiger Triumph, 2024: Specific dates not provided in the available sources.
• D. MILAN, 2024: Specific dates not provided in the available sources.

Question 113

With reference to “Shaksgam Valley”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This valley is a strategic key region, that is part of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).

2. India has lodged protest against the infrastructural development being carried out by China in this valley.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. The Shaksgam Valley, located in the northern region of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK), is a strategically significant area. It was illegally ceded by Pakistan to China under the 1963 Sino-Pakistan Agreement, but India claims it as part of Jammu and Kashmir.
2. Statement 2: Correct. India has strongly protested against China’s infrastructural activities in the Shaksgam Valley, viewing them as a violation of its territorial sovereignty.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 114

Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Integrated Rural Development Programme

2. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana

Codes:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 3, 4, 1, 2

(c) 2, 3, 4, 1

(d) 4, 3, 1, 2

Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:
The schemes in chronological order of their launch are:

1. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) (1978): Focused on rural development by providing employment, assets, and skills to the poor.
2. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) (1999): Aimed at self-employment through micro-enterprises in rural areas.
3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) (2005): Provided legal guarantees for rural employment.
4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) (2014): Focused on financial inclusion through universal access to banking services.

Thus, the correct order is 1 → 2 → 3 → 4.

Question 115

With reference to Economic Growth, which of the following statements is/are correct

1. Indian Economy is an Underdeveloped Economy.

2. Indian Economy is a Mixed Economy.

3. J.M. Keynes is the Father of Economics.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) Only 3 is correct.

(c) Only 1 is correct.

(d) Only 2 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

1. Indian Economy is an Underdeveloped Economy: Correct. Despite progress, India is still considered underdeveloped in some aspects, such as per capita income and infrastructure.
2. Indian Economy is a Mixed Economy: Correct. India combines features of both capitalism (private ownership) and socialism (government regulation).
3. J.M. Keynes is the Father of Economics: Incorrect. The title “Father of Economics” is attributed to Adam Smith, not Keynes. Keynes is known for modern macroeconomics.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 116

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The value of national curreпсу determined by demand and supply of foreign currency is called flexible exchange rate.

Reason (R): Demand and supply of the foreign currency is being determined by the Central Bank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Correct. A flexible exchange rate is determined by the demand and supply of foreign currency in the open market without direct government intervention.
• Reason (R): Incorrect. In a flexible exchange rate system, the demand and supply of foreign currency are determined by market forces, not the central bank. The central bank only intervenes in a managed or fixed exchange rate system.

Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 117

With reference to India, consider the following events:

1. Nationalisation of Banks

2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks

3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches

Which of the above events can be considered as steps taken to achieve “financial inclusion in India”?

(a) Only 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 3

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three events contributed to financial inclusion in India:

1. Nationalisation of Banks (1969): Expanded the reach of banks to rural and underserved areas, improving access to financial services.
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks (1975): Aimed at providing credit and banking facilities to rural and remote regions.
3. Adoption of Villages by Bank Branches: Encouraged banks to focus on rural areas, ensuring financial services were extended to every village.

Thus, all three are steps toward achieving financial inclusion.

Question 118

With reference to “National Food Security Act”, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It will cover up to 75% rural and 50% urban population.

2. It has special focus on nutritional support to women and children.

3. It was enforced on July 5, 2010.

Codes:

(a) 2 and 3 are correct.

(b) 1 and 3 are correct.

(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

(d) 1 and 2 are correct.

Answer: (d) 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

1. Coverage (1): Correct. The National Food Security Act (NFSA) covers up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population, ensuring subsidized food grains to eligible households.
2. Focus on Women and Children (2): Correct. The NFSA has a special focus on nutritional support for pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children.
3. Date of Enforcement (3): Incorrect. The NFSA was enacted on July 5, 2013, not 2010.

Thus, only 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 119

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States.

Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): True. There is a positive relationship between the Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian states because states with higher HDI often perform better on SDG indicators.
• Reason (R): True. The SDG targets align closely with the dimensions of HDI, such as education, health, and living standards, as these are core areas for both HDI measurement and SDG progress.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) provides the correct explanation for (A).

Question 120

List-I contains the names of countries, whereas List-II shows the Rank as remittances received in the year 2022. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 4    1    2    3

(b) 2    3    1    4

(c) 3    4    2    1

(d) 1    2    3    4

Answer: (b) 2, 3, 1, 4

Explanation:
The rankings of countries based on remittances received in 2022 are as follows:

• A. Mexico (2): Mexico ranks second with significant remittance inflows from its diaspora, particularly in the USA.
• B. China (3): China ranks third, with substantial contributions from overseas Chinese workers.
• C. India (1): India ranks first, receiving over $100 billion in remittances, the highest globally.
• D. Philippines (4): The Philippines ranks fourth, benefiting from remittances primarily from overseas Filipino workers.

Thus, the correct match is 2 → 3 → 1 → 4, corresponding to option (b).

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Question 121

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 1    2    3    4

(b) 2    1    3    4

(c) 4    1    2    3

(d) 2    3    1    4

(d) 1    2    3    4

Answer: (b) 2 1 3 4

Explanation:

Based on available data, the ranking of Indian states by infrastructure expenditure from 2019 to 2023 is as follows:

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Karnataka
4. Tamil Nadu

This ranking is supported by a report highlighting the top Indian states with the highest capital expenditure on infrastructure over the past five years.

Invest Up

Therefore, the correct matching of List-I (State) with List-II (Rank according to expenditure on infrastructure 2019-23) is:

• A. Maharashtra — 2. Second
• B. Uttar Pradesh — 1. First
• C. Tamil Nadu — 4. Fourth
• D. Karnataka — 3. Third

Question 122

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of an emergency.

Reason (R): An emergency may take place at any time.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): True. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution provides for the declaration of a National Emergency in cases of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• Reason (R): False. An emergency under Article 352 can only be declared when specific conditions are met, such as a grave threat to the security of India. It cannot take place “at any time” without cause.

Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 123

Which of the following statements are correct regarding ICT based e-Governance?

1. e-Governance reduces the transparency of Government.

2. e-Governance reduces the cost of Government.

3. e-Governance increases citizens input into Government.

4. e-Governance increases bureaucratic red tapism.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. e-Governance reduces the transparency of Government (1): Incorrect. e-Governance increases transparency by providing public access to government services, data, and information online.
2. e-Governance reduces the cost of Government (2): Correct. It improves efficiency, reduces paperwork, and lowers administrative costs.
3. e-Governance increases citizens’ input into Government (3): Correct. Through e-Governance, citizens can easily provide feedback, access services, and engage with government processes.
4. e-Governance increases bureaucratic red-tapism (4): Incorrect. e-Governance generally reduces bureaucratic hurdles by automating processes and streamlining decision-making.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3.

Question 124

The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources ?

1. The Constitution

2. Parliamentary Laws

3. Executive Rules and Orders

4. Conventions

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) Only I

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
The functions of the UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) are derived from multiple sources:

1. The Constitution (1): The primary source, as the Constitution of India (Article 315-323) establishes the UPSC and defines its powers and functions.
2. Parliamentary Laws (2): Laws enacted by Parliament further define the functions and responsibilities of the UPSC, such as the UPSC (Exemption from Consultation) Act, 1967.
3. Executive Rules and Orders (3): The government issues rules and orders related to the functioning of UPSC, including procedures and guidelines for recruitment and appointments.
4. Conventions (4): Over time, established conventions also guide the practices of UPSC, such as the procedures for conducting examinations and appointments.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Question 125

Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

Constitutional Body – Constitutional Article

(a) Election Commission – 165

(b) National Commission for Scheduled Castes – 148

(c) Finance Commission 263

(d) National Commission for Backward Classes 340

Answer: (d) National Commission for Backward Classes – 340

Explanation:

• Election Commission (a): Incorrect. The Election Commission is mentioned in Article 324, not Article 165.
• National Commission for Scheduled Castes (b): Incorrect. It is mentioned in Article 338, not Article 148.
• Finance Commission (c): Incorrect. It is mentioned in Article 280, not Article 263.
• National Commission for Backward Classes (d): Correct. Article 340 of the Constitution of India allows the President to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs). However, the National Commission for Backward Classes is established under Article 338 B of the Indian Constitution.

Thus, the most appropiate answer is (d).

Question 126

Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following:

1. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India

2. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan

3. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab

4. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2

(b) 3, 2, 1, 4

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:
The correct chronological sequence of the cases is as follows:

1. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951): The case dealt with the validity of the First Amendment of the Constitution, allowing Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
2. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan (1965): This case involved the power of Parliament to amend fundamental rights under Article 368.
3. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967): This case dealt with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution, ruling that Parliament could not alter the “fundamental rights” through amendments.
4. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973): This landmark case upheld the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution but ruled that the “basic structure” of the Constitution could not be altered.

Thus, the correct sequence is 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 127

Match the Amendments with their year of implementation:

Codes:

       A    B    C    D

(a)  2    1    3    4

(b) 4    3    2    1

(c) 1    2    3    4

(d) 3    1    4    2

Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:

• A. 42nd Amendment – 3. 1976: The 42nd Amendment, also known as the “Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976,” is known for its major changes, including the addition of the “Directive Principles of State Policy” and changes in the preamble.
• B. 52nd Amendment – 1. 1985: The 52nd Amendment, also known as the “Anti-Defection Law,” was passed to prevent political defections and strengthen party discipline.
• C. 86th Amendment – 4. 2002: The 86th Amendment introduced Article 21A, which made education a fundamental right for children between the ages of 6 and 14.
• D. 96th Amendment – 2. 2011: The 96th Amendment dealt with the inclusion of the reservation for OBCs in the local government bodies, providing for a one-third reservation for women in Panchayats and Municipalities.

Thus, the correct matching is 3, 1, 4, 2.

Question 128

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 2    4    3    1

(b) 2    1    4    3

(c) 4    3    1    2

(d) 3    2    4    1

Answer: (c) 4    3    1    2

Explanation:

Morris Jones: Described the Indian system as “bargaining federalism”
K.C. Wheare: Described the Indian system as “quasi-federal”
Granville Austin: Described the Indian system as “cooperative federalism”

Ivor Jennings: Described the Indian system as “Federalism with Centralising Tendency”
Paul Appleby: Described the Indian system as “extremely federal”

Question 129

Which one of the following is not a level in the three-tier Panchayati Raj recommended by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee ?

(a) Panchayat Samiti

(b) Gram Panchayat

(c) Zilla Panchayat

(d) Nyaya Panchaya

Answer: (d) Nyaya Panchayat

Explanation:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India, which includes:

1. Gram Panchayat (village level)
2. Panchayat Samiti (block level)
3. Zilla Panchayat (district level)

However, Nyaya Panchayat (a system for administering justice at the village level) is not a part of the recommended three-tier structure.

Thus, the correct answer is (d) Nyaya Panchayat.

Question 130

According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 the Lokpal would be appointed by the President after obtaining the recommendations of a Selection Committee, with the Prime Minister as chairperson and consisting, among others, of the following:

1. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by him

2. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

4. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation:
According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Selection Committee for appointing the Lokpal consists of:

1. Prime Minister (Chairperson)
2. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by him
3. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
4. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
5. An eminent jurist nominated by the President on the recommendation of the other members of the Selection Committee

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Question 131

Consider the following statements with reference to the Congress Socialist Party:

1. The Congress Socialist Party was formed in January 1934.

2. Jawaharlal Nehru formally joined this party due to his sympathy for socialism.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Only 2

Answer: (c) Only 1

Explanation:

1. Statement 1 is Correct. The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was indeed formed in January 1934 as a faction within the Indian National Congress that aimed to promote socialist ideals and policies.
2. Statement 2 is Incorrect. Although a socialist, Jawaharlal Nehru did not join the CSP, which created some rancor among CSP members who saw Nehru as unwilling to put his socialist slogans into action. After independence, the CSP broke away from Congress, under the influence of JP, and Lohia to form the Socialist Party of India.

Question 132

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:

1. Murder of Abul Fazl

2. Death of Sheikh Mubarak

3. Death of Faizi

4. Death of Daniyal

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 3, 2, 1, 4

(c) 2, 3, 1, 4

(d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Answer: (c) 2, 3, 1, 4

Explanation:
The events occurred in the following chronological order:

Death of Sheikh Mubarak (2) (1593)
Death of Faizi (3) (1595)
Murder of Abul Fazl (1) (1602)
Death of Daniyal (4) (1604)

Question 133

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order:

1. Linlithgow August Offer

2. Cripps Mission arrival in India

3. Ramgarh Congress Session

4. Resignation letters of Congress Ministers

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 3, 1, 4, 2

(b) 4, 3, 1, 2

(c) 1, 3, 4, 2

(d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (b) 4, 3, 1, 2

Explanation:
The events occurred in the following chronological order:

1. Resignation letters of Congress Ministers (4): In 1939, following the breakdown of negotiations with the British, the Congress ministers resigned from provincial governments.
2. Ramgarh Congress Session (3): This session took place in 1940, where the Congress passed resolutions demanding full independence from Britain.
3. Linlithgow August Offer (1): In 1940, the British government offered a constitutional proposal for the future of India, known as the August Offer.
4. Cripps Mission arrival in India (2): The Cripps Mission arrived in India in 1942 to seek Indian support for the war effort and to discuss constitutional reforms.

Question 134

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 3    2    4    1

(b) 1    2    4    3

(c) 3    2    1    4

(d) 1    2    3    4

Answer: (c) 3    2    1    4

Explanation:

• A. Hindu Polity – 3. K.P. Jayaswal: This book discusses the political system and governance in ancient Hindu society.
• B. The Wonder That Was India – 2. A.L. Basham: A comprehensive work on India’s ancient history and civilization.
• C. An Introduction to the Study of Indian History – 1. D.D. Kosambi: A pioneering work that introduced a Marxist perspective on Indian history.
• D. The Early History of India – 4. Vincent Arthur Smith: This book focuses on the early history of India, from the earliest times to the rise of the Maurya dynasty.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 3, 2, 4, 1.

Question 135

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Most of the early nationalists considered British rule as an act of providence destined to bring modernisation.

Reason (R): They complained only against “Un-British rule” in India.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, bút (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the dõrrect explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): True. Most of the early nationalists in India, including figures like Dadabhai Naoroji and Gopal Krishna Gokhale, saw British rule as an opportunity for modernization and progress in India, even while seeking reforms within the colonial system. They believed that British governance brought certain positive changes like infrastructure development and the spread of education.
• Reason (R): True. The early nationalists generally complained about the “Un-British” practices of the British government, such as exploitation and racial discrimination, rather than opposing British rule entirely. They sought administrative and constitutional reforms rather than a complete end to colonial rule.

Thus, (R) explains the early nationalists’ approach to colonial rule but does not directly explain why they viewed British rule as an act of providence, making (R) not the correct explanation for (A).

Question 136

Which one of the following statements is not correct about William A.J. Archbold?

(a) He was the Principal of Government College, Dacca.

(b) He was the Principal of Lahore College, Lahore.

(c) He was the Principal of MAO College, Aligarh.

(d) He was the Principal of the Muir Central College, Allahabad.

Answer: (b) He was the Principal of Lahore College, Lahore.

Explanation:
William A.J. Archbold was a prominent educationist and played an important role in Indian education during British rule. He was the principal of the following institutions:

• Government College, Dacca
• MAO College, Aligarh
• Muir Central College, Allahabad

However, he was not the principal of Lahore College, Lahore. Thus, statement (b) is not correct.

Question 137

Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order starting from the earliest:

1. Vellore Mutiny

2. Death of Nana Fadnavis

3. Recall of Wellesley

4. Anglo-Nepalese War

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 2, 3, 1, 4

(b) 4, 1, 3, 2

(c) 2, 3, 4, 1

(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (a) 2, 3, 1, 4

Explanation:

The events occurred in the following chronological order:

1. Death of Nana Fadnavis (2): Nana Fadnavis, a prominent Maratha statesman, died in 1800.
2. Recall of Wellesley (3): Lord Wellesley was recalled from his position as Governor-General of India in 1805.
3. Vellore Mutiny (1): This mutiny took place in 1806, where soldiers of the Vellore fort rebelled against British rule.
4. Anglo-Nepalese War (4): The war took place from 1814 to 1816 between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Nepal.

Question 138

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 4    3    1    2

(b) 3    4    1    2

(c) 3    2    1    4

(d) 2    1    3    4

Answer: (a) 4, 3, 1, 2

Explanation:

• A. Paika Revolt (4): The Paika Revolt of 1817 in Odisha was led by Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mahapatra.
• B. Bareilly Revolt (3): The Bareilly Revolt in 1857 was led by Mufti Muhammad Aiwaz.
• C. Malabar Revolt (1): The Malabar Revolt (also known as the Moplah Rebellion) of 1921 was led by Edachena Kungan.
• D. Sylhet Revolt (2): The Sylhet Revolt of 1857 was led by Radharam.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) 4, 3, 1, 2.

Question 139

Consider the following days and arrange them in chronological order:

1. World Health Day

2. National Maritime Day

3. World Athletics Day

4. World Red Cross Day

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 4, 2, 3, 1

(b) 2, 1, 3, 4

(c) 2, 3, 4, 1

(d) 3, 2, 1, 4

Answer: (b) 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation: The correct chronological order of the days is:

1. National Maritime Day (2): Celebrated on April 5 every year.
2. World Health Day (1): Celebrated on April 7 every year.
3. World Athletics Day (3): Celebrated on May 7 every year.
4. World Red Cross Day (4): Celebrated on May 8 every year.

Question 140

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correet answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 3    2    1    4

(b) 3    2    4    1

(c) 4    2    1    3

(d) 2    3    1    4

Answer: (a) 3    2    1    4

Explanation:

The correct matches between the awards and their recipients are:

• Aryabhatta Award, 2024: Dr. Pavuluri Subba Rao
• Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award, 2024: Amitabh Bachchan
• Goldman Environmental Prize, 2024: Alok Shukla

The World Literary Prize, 2024 was awarded to South Korean author Han Kang for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life.

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Question 141

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 4    3    2    1

(b) 2    1    4    3

(c) 1    2    3    4

(d) 1    3    2    4

Answer: (b) 2    1    4    3

Explanation:

• Vitamin A – 2. Blindness: A deficiency in Vitamin A causes night blindness and can lead to complete blindness in severe cases.
• Vitamin B – 1. Beriberi: Deficiency in Vitamin B (particularly B1, thiamine) causes beriberi, a disease affecting the nervous and cardiovascular systems.
• Vitamin C – 4. Scurvy: Lack of Vitamin C causes scurvy, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums and weakness.
• Vitamin D – 3. Rickets: Deficiency in Vitamin D leads to rickets, a condition where bones become weak and soft, especially in children.

Question 142

Consider the following statements with reference to Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:

1. In the Constitution, there is a provision for the post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities for every State.

2. A new Article 350 B was added for this by the 9th Constitution Amendment Act.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Incorrect. The Constitution does not provide for the post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities in every state. Instead, Article 350B allows for the creation of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities at the national level, not for every state.
2. Statement 2: Correct. Article 350B was added by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956), which provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities to safeguard their interests and report to the President.

Question 143

The Concurrent list of the Indian Constitution includes

1. Trade and Commerce

2. Adulteration of Goods

3. Succession

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 1

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution includes subjects on which both the Central and State governments can legislate.

• Trade and Commerce (1): This is included under the Concurrent List (Article 246).
• Adulteration of Goods (2): This is also covered under the Concurrent List. Laws regulating food safety and adulteration can be made by both the Centre and the States.
• Succession (3): Matters relating to inheritance and succession are also part of the Concurrent List.

Thus, all three statements are correct, and the correct answer is (b) 1, 2 and 3.

Question 144

Fathima Beevi died recently. Consider the following statements regarding her:

1. She was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India.

2. She served as the Governor of Kerala from 1997-2001.

3. She was the first Muslim woman to enter into higher judiciary.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) Only 1

(a) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. Fathima Beevi was the first woman to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in 1989.
2. Statement 2: Incorrect. Fathima Beevi did not serve as the Governor of Kerala. She was appointed as the Governor of Tamil Nadu in 1997, not Kerala.
3. Statement 3: Correct. She was the first Muslim woman to be appointed to the higher judiciary in India.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 3.

Question 145

With reference to the “National Intellectual Property Rights Policy” consider the following statements:

1. It reiterates India’s commitment to Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement.

2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Correct. The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy reaffirms India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement, aiming to balance IP protection with public welfare.
2. Statement 2: Correct. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), now known as the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India.

Thus, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is (d) Both 1 and 2.

Question 146

Which Amendment Acts deal with Local Governance Institutions in India?

(a) 63rd and 64th Amendment Acts

(b) 86th and 87th Amendment Acts

(c) 42nd and 43rd Amendment Acts

(d) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts

Answer: (d) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts

Explanation:
The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts of the Indian Constitution, enacted in 1992, deal with local governance institutions:

• 73rd Amendment: Introduced Panchayati Raj Institutions for rural governance.
• 74th Amendment: Established Municipalities for urban governance.

These amendments aimed to decentralize power and promote local self-governance.

Question 147

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

(a) 2    1    4    3

(b) 1    2    3    4

(c) 4    3    2    1

(d) 3    4    1    2

Answer: (a) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation:

• A. Lallanji Gopal – 2. The Economic Life of Northern India: Lallanji Gopal is known for his work on the economic history of India, particularly in the context of northern India.
• B. Habib and Nizami – 1. A Comprehensive History of India: The Delhi Sultanat: Habib and Nizami co-authored this detailed history of the Delhi Sultanate.
• C. K.S. Lal – 4. History of the Khaljis: K.S. Lal is known for his work on the history of the Khalji dynasty.
• D. Dasharatha Sharma – 3. Early Chauhan Dynasties: Dasharatha Sharma is known for his research on the early Chauhan dynasties.

Thus, the correct matching is 2, 1, 4, 3, and the answer is (a).

Question 148

Consider the following statements :

1. Kunwar Landlord Singh, of Jagdishpur Bihar, led the rebellion against the British. in

2. Lord Dalhousie recognised the adopted son of Rani Lakshmi Bai as the heir apparent.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 1

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Kunwar Landlord Singh (Kunwar Singh) of Jagdishpur, Bihar, was a prominent leader of the 1857 rebellion against the British, making this statement correct.
2. Statement 2: Lord Dalhousie did not recognize the adopted son of Rani Lakshmi Bai as the heir apparent under the Doctrine of Lapse, which led to her revolt, making this statement incorrect.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.

Question 149

Consider the following foreign travelers and arrange them in ascending chronological order :

1. I-Tsing

2. Al-Biruni

3. Huentsang (Hiuen Tsang)

4. Fa-Hien (Fa-Hien)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 4, 3, 1, 2

(c) 2, 1, 4, 3

(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

Answer: (b) 4, 3, 1, 2

Explanation:
The chronological order of the travelers is:

1. Fa-Hien (4): Visited India during the Gupta period (5th century CE).
2. Huentsang (Hiuen Tsang) (3): Visited India in the 7th century CE during Harsha’s reign.
3. I-Tsing (1): Came to India in the 7th century CE after Huentsang.
4. Al-Biruni (2): Arrived in the 11th century CE during Mahmud of Ghazni’s invasions.

Thus, the order is 4 → 3 → 1 → 2.

Question 150

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Balban made his government firm and centralised all authority in his hands.

Reason (R) : He wanted to protect the north-west frontier against Mongol invasions.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

• Assertion (A): Balban centralized authority and strengthened his government to establish a firm and autocratic rule, curbing the power of nobles.
• Reason (R): Protecting the north-west frontier from Mongol invasions was one of Balban’s significant concerns, but it was not the primary reason for centralizing power.

Thus, while both statements are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

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UPPCS Prelims Paper 2024

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.

UPPCS Prelims 2024 Answer Key GS Paper 1. UPPCS Prelims 2024 Solution GS Paper 1.