UPPCS Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

The UPPCS Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1 is now available for all aspirants who appeared in the exam conducted by the Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission (UPPSC) on 12 October 2025. This detailed UPPSC GS Paper 1 Answer Key 2025 provides accurate solutions and explanations for every question, helping candidates evaluate their scores and understand the updated trend and difficulty level of the exam.

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UPPCS Prelims 2025 Answer Key GS Paper 1

Question 1. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order:

Poona Pact
End of Civil Disobedience Movement
Gandhi-Irwin Pact
Second Round Table Conference

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer – (a) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation –
Let us arrange these events in their actual chronological sequence with corresponding years:

Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) – This agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin (the then Viceroy) was signed in March 1931. It led to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement and allowed Gandhi to attend the Second Round Table Conference.
Second Round Table Conference (1931) – Held in London from September to December 1931, where Gandhi represented the Indian National Congress as the sole Indian representative.
Poona Pact (1932) – Signed in September 1932 between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar concerning the representation of the depressed classes in legislatures after the British announced the Communal Award.
End of Civil Disobedience Movement (1934) – The movement was officially withdrawn in April 1934 by Mahatma Gandhi due to waning participation and repression by the British government.

Therefore, the correct chronological order is:
Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) → Second Round Table Conference (1931) → Poona Pact (1932) → End of Civil Disobedience Movement (1934)

Hence, option (a) 3, 4, 1, 2 is correct.

Question 2. With reference to the World Bank and International Monetary Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly known as Bretton Woods Twins.
Headquarters of International Monetary Fund and World Bank are located at Washington D.C. and New York respectively.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –
Let us analyze each statement carefully:

Correct: The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) were both established in July 1944 at the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference, held at Bretton Woods, New Hampshire (USA). Hence, they are collectively known as the “Bretton Woods Twins.”
Incorrect: Both the World Bank and the IMF have their headquarters in Washington D.C., USA, not in New York.

Therefore, the correct statement is only statement 1.

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

Question 3. “Swavalambini”, a women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East, is launched by which of the following ministries?

Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Ministry of Women and Child Development
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Swavalambini is a women entrepreneurship programme launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) for the North-Eastern region of India.
The initiative aims to promote women-led enterprises and enhance entrepreneurial skills among women in the region through training, mentorship, and financial linkages.
The Ministry of Women and Child Development and the Ministry of MSME are not directly involved in launching this programme.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Question 4. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Sustainable development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present time should not compromise with the needs of future generations.

Reason (R): Agenda 21 was signed by world leaders in 1995.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer – (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
The concept of sustainable development emphasizes that development should meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It seeks to balance economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental protection.
This idea was popularized by the Brundtland Commission Report (1987) titled “Our Common Future.”
Reason (R) is false:
Agenda 21 was adopted in 1992, not in 1995, at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) — also known as the Earth Summit — held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
It was a comprehensive plan of action to promote sustainable development globally.

Therefore, while the assertion is correct, the reason given is factually incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 5. Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct chronological order:

First Anglo-Mysore War
Second Anglo-French War
First Anglo-Sikh War
First Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 1, 2, 4, 3

Answer – (c) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation –

Let’s see the chronological order with years:

Second Anglo-French War (1748–1763)
- Also known as part of the Carnatic Wars, fought between the British and the French in India for political supremacy.
- The Second Carnatic War took place between 1749 and 1754.
First Anglo-Mysore War (1767–1769)
- Fought between Hyder Ali of Mysore and the British East India Company.
- It ended with the Treaty of Madras (1769).
First Anglo-Afghan War (1839–1842)
- Fought between the British and Dost Mohammad Khan of Afghanistan during Lord Auckland’s governorship.
- Ended disastrously for the British with heavy losses during the retreat from Kabul.
First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846)
- Fought between the Sikh Empire and the British East India Company.
- Ended with the Treaty of Lahore (1846) leading to British influence in Punjab.

Correct chronological order:
Second Anglo-French War (1749–1754) → First Anglo-Mysore War (1767–1769) → First Anglo-Afghan War (1839–1842) → First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846)

Hence, the correct answer is (c) 2, 1, 4, 3.

Question 6. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki.

Reason (R): Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
Tuzk-e-Babri (also known as Baburnama) is the autobiography of Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire.
It was originally written in Chagatai Turki, which was Babur’s mother tongue and the literary language of the Timurids of Central Asia.
Reason (R) is false:
Turki was not the official language of the Mughal Court.
The official language of the Mughal administration was Persian, not Turki. Persian continued as the court and administrative language from Akbar’s reign onwards until the British period.

Therefore, while Babur indeed wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki, Turki was not the official language of the Mughal court.

Hence, the correct answer is (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 7. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Schedule)	List – II (Subject)
A. 7th Schedule	1. Languages
B. 8th Schedule	2. Disqualification on ground of defection
C. 9th Schedule	3. Union, State and Concurrent lists
D. 10th Schedule	4. Validation of certain Acts/Regulations

Code:
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 3 4 1

Answer – (b) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation –

7th Schedule → (3) Union, State and Concurrent Lists
It defines the division of powers between the Union and State Governments under Articles 245–246.
8th Schedule → (1) Languages
It contains the list of official languages recognized by the Indian Constitution — currently 22 languages.
9th Schedule → (4) Validation of certain Acts/Regulations
Added by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951) to protect certain laws (especially land reforms) from judicial review.
10th Schedule → (2) Disqualification on ground of defection
Added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, it deals with anti-defection provisions for legislators.

Correct Matching:
A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2

Hence, the correct answer is (b) 3, 1, 4, 2.

Question 8. With reference to the ‘Human Development Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The UNDP published its first Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index.
The first team that developed the Human Development Index was led by Mahbub-ul-Haq and S. Priesner.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct:
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) published its first Human Development Report (HDR) in 1990. This report introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) as a composite measure of a country’s average achievements in health (life expectancy), education (mean and expected years of schooling), and standard of living (GNI per capita).
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The HDI was developed by a team led by Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq and Indian economist Amartya Sen, not S. Priesner.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Only 1.

Question 9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India is the second largest mobile gaming market in the world.

Reason (R): There are more than 950 million internet users in India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is true:
As per various global gaming industry reports (including those by Statista and KPMG), India ranks second in the world in terms of the number of mobile gaming users, just after China.
The Indian mobile gaming market has witnessed massive growth due to affordable smartphones, cheap data, and youth engagement.
Reason (R) is also true:
India has over 950 million internet users (as of 2024), which is the second largest online user base globally, following China.
The large internet user base directly contributes to the growth of mobile gaming, as most games are played online through mobile devices.

Hence, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).

Correct Answer: (a)

Question 10. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List – I (Sustainable Development Goals)	List – II (Area of Goal)
A. Goal 1	1. Clean water and sanitation
B. Goal 3	2. Quality education
C. Goal 4	3. To end poverty in all forms
D. Goal 6	4. Good health and well-being

Code:
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer – (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation –

Let’s correctly match the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

Goal 1 → (3) To end poverty in all forms
SDG 1 aims to end poverty everywhere by promoting equal access to resources, opportunities, and resilience against shocks.
Goal 3 → (4) Good health and well-being
Focuses on ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being for all at all ages.
Goal 4 → (2) Quality education
Aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities.
Goal 6 → (1) Clean water and sanitation
Ensures availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.

Correct Matching:
A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1

Hence, the correct answer is (b) 3, 4, 2, 1.

Question 11. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Himalayas form the source of several large perennial rivers.

Reason (R): The higher ranges of the Himalayas are snow-covered throughout the year.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
The Himalayas are the source of many major perennial rivers such as the Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra, Yamuna, and Sutlej. These rivers flow throughout the year.
Reason (R) is true:
The higher Himalayan ranges remain snow-covered throughout the year, providing a continuous supply of water to the rivers through melting of glaciers and snow, even during dry seasons.
Since the snow cover of the higher Himalayas is the main reason for the perennial flow of these rivers, (R) correctly explains (A).

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Correct Answer: (a)

Question 12. Which of the following events took place in the year 1911?

Partition of Bengal revoked
Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi
Lucknow Pact between Congress and Muslim League

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – (c) 1 and 2

Explanation –

Let us examine each event:

Partition of Bengal revoked (1911):
- The Partition of Bengal (1905) carried out by Lord Curzon was annulled in 1911 by the British Government due to strong nationalist opposition.
Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi (1911):
- During the Delhi Durbar of 1911, King George V announced that the capital of British India would be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
Lucknow Pact (1916):
- The Lucknow Pact between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League took place in 1916, not in 1911.

Therefore, the correct events of 1911 are 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 2

Question 13. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Coal Producing Area	State
1. Maolong	Arunachal Pradesh
2. Raniganj	West Bengal
3. Ramgarh	Jharkhand
4. Talcher	Odisha

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3

Answer – (b) Only 2, 3 and 4

Explanation –

Let’s verify each pair:

Maolong – Arunachal Pradesh:
- Incorrect. There is no major coalfield named Maolong in Arunachal Pradesh.
- The main coal-bearing areas in Arunachal are Namchik-Namphuk coalfields in Changlang district.
- In distribution maps of India’s coalfields, “Maolong” appears under Meghalaya (Khasi & Jaintia Hills) among tertiary coalfields: e.g. “Siju, Cherrapunji, Liotryngew, Maolong and Langrin” are listed as coalfields in Meghalaya.
Raniganj – West Bengal:
- Correct. It is India’s oldest coalfield, located in Asansol and Durgapur region of West Bengal.
Ramgarh – Jharkhand:
- Correct. It is an important coal mining area in the North Karanpura Coalfield region of Jharkhand.
Talcher – Odisha:
- Correct. Located in Angul district of Odisha, it is one of India’s largest coalfields, part of Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd. (MCL).

Therefore, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Correct Answer: (b) Only 2, 3 and 4

Question 14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Consumers can bargain below Maximum Retail Price (MRP).

Reason (R): MRP is a price a seller must charge from the buyer.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
Consumers can bargain and buy products below the MRP, as the Maximum Retail Price (MRP) is the ceiling price — the highest price that a retailer can legally charge.
Sellers are allowed to sell at any price lower than MRP, depending on discounts or negotiations.
Reason (R) is false:
MRP is not the price a seller must charge; it is the maximum limit of price that can be charged from consumers. A seller cannot sell above MRP, but may sell below it.

Therefore, Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Correct Answer: (d)

Question 15. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law.

Reason (R): Public Interest Litigation provides effective access of justice to socially and economically weaker sections.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is indeed essential for maintaining the rule of law in India, as it allows the judiciary to protect the rights of the public and ensure that the government acts within the boundaries of law and justice.
Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A):
PIL provides access to justice for socially and economically weaker sections, who might otherwise be unable to approach the courts.
By enabling any public-spirited person to file a case for the welfare of others, PIL strengthens the rule of law and accountability of public authorities.

Hence, both statements are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Correct Answer: (a)

Question 16. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Generally, an alloy of lead and tin is used as a material of the fuse wire.

Reason (R): Alloy of lead and tin has a higher melting point than copper and aluminium.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
Fuse wires are made from alloys of lead and tin (sometimes with a small proportion of bismuth or zinc) because these materials have low melting points and high resistivity.
When excessive current flows, the wire melts quickly and breaks the circuit, preventing damage to electrical appliances.
Reason (R) is false:
The alloy of lead and tin has a lower melting point than copper or aluminium, not higher.
That is precisely why it is used in fuse wires — it melts easily when the current exceeds the safe limit.

Therefore, Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

Correct Answer: (d)

Question 17. With reference to Delhi Government’s Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help convert stubble into manure.
The Bio-decomposer solution is prepared using a mix of several fungi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct:
The Delhi Government, in collaboration with the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), Pusa, launched the Bio-decomposer Spray Programme to curb stubble burning.
Under this initiative, the bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers in Delhi and surrounding regions.
It helps convert paddy stubble into organic manure within 15–20 days, reducing pollution.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Pusa Bio-decomposer is a microbial solution prepared from a mix of several fungi strains, mainly Trichoderma species, that help decompose crop residue rapidly and enrich the soil with nutrients.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Question 18. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

Tribe	Habitat
1. Bushman	Kalahari Desert
2. Eskimo	Northern Canada
3. Pygmy	Congo Basin
4. Masai	West Africa

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 3 and 4

Answer – (b) Only 4

Explanation –

Let’s verify each pair:

Bushman – Kalahari Desert:
Correct. The Bushmen (San people) inhabit the Kalahari Desert spread across Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa.
Eskimo – Northern Canada:
Correct. The Eskimos (Inuit people) live in the Arctic regions of Canada, Alaska, and Greenland.
Pygmy – Congo Basin:
Correct. The Pygmies are forest-dwelling tribes living in the Congo Basin of Central Africa (mainly in the Democratic Republic of Congo).
Masai – West Africa:
Incorrect. The Masai tribe inhabits East Africa, particularly southern Kenya and northern Tanzania, not West Africa.

Therefore, the only incorrect pair is (4) Masai – West Africa.

Correct Answer: (b) Only 4

Question 19. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Disciple)	List – II (Guru)
A. Kabir	1. Guru Nanak Dev
B. Amir Khusrau	2. Swami Ramananda
C. Surdas	3. Nizamuddin Auliya
D. Mardana	4. Vallabhacharya

Code:
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 3 4 1

Answer – (d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation –

Let’s correctly match each disciple with their guru:

A. Kabir → (2) Swami Ramananda
Kabir was a disciple of Swami Ramananda, a 15th-century Bhakti saint who propagated devotion to a formless God and rejected caste distinctions.
B. Amir Khusrau → (3) Nizamuddin Auliya
The great Sufi poet and musician Amir Khusrau was the most famous disciple of Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya, a leading Sufi saint of the Chishti order.
C. Surdas → (4) Vallabhacharya
The blind saint-poet Surdas, known for his devotional songs to Lord Krishna, was a disciple of Vallabhacharya, the founder of the Pushtimarg sect.
D. Mardana → (1) Guru Nanak Dev
Bhai Mardana was a close companion and follower of Guru Nanak Dev, the founder of Sikhism. He accompanied Guru Nanak in his spiritual journeys.

Correct Matching:
A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1

Correct Answer: (d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Question 20. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Iron-ore Mines)	List – II (State)
A. Gurumahisani	1. Jharkhand
B. Bailadila	2. Karnataka
C. Noamundi	3. Odisha
D. Kudremukh	4. Chhattisgarh

Code:
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer – (a) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation –

Let’s correctly match each iron-ore mine with its respective state:

A. Gurumahisani → (3) Odisha
Gurumahisani is one of the oldest iron ore mines in India, located in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha.
B. Bailadila → (4) Chhattisgarh
Bailadila range in Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh is rich in high-grade hematite iron ore and operated by NMDC Ltd.
C. Noamundi → (1) Jharkhand
Noamundi is a major iron ore mining centre located in West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand, jointly operated by Tata Steel and others.
D. Kudremukh → (2) Karnataka
Kudremukh, located in Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka, was a magnetite iron ore mine, now closed but once run by KIOCL (Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd.).

Correct Matching:
A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2

Correct Answer: (a) 3, 4, 1, 2

Question 21. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Mission)	List – II (Date of Launch)
A. Chandrayaan – 3	1. 02 September 2023
B. Aditya L1	2. 17 February 2024
C. INSAT – 3DS	3. 14 July 2023
D. RLV-LEX – 01	4. 02 April 2023

Code:
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

Answer – (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation –

Let’s match each Indian space mission with its correct launch date:

A. Chandrayaan – 3 → (3) 14 July 2023
- Launched by ISRO from Sriharikota using LVM3-M4 rocket.
- Successfully landed near the Moon’s south pole on 23 August 2023, making India the first country to do so.
B. Aditya L1 → (1) 02 September 2023
- India’s first solar mission, launched by PSLV-C57 to study the Sun’s corona and solar wind from the Lagrange Point L1.
C. INSAT – 3DS → (2) 17 February 2024
- An advanced meteorological satellite, launched aboard GSLV-F14 to enhance weather monitoring and disaster warning capabilities.
D. RLV-LEX – 01 → (4) 02 April 2023
- A Reusable Launch Vehicle Landing Experiment, successfully conducted at Challakere, Karnataka, to test autonomous landing capabilities.

Correct Matching:
A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4

Correct Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 22. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India’s success is critical for the global success of Sustainable Development Goals.

Reason (R): India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the total world population.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
India’s performance is indeed crucial for the global success of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Since India has a significant share of the world’s population and faces diverse developmental challenges, its progress in areas like poverty reduction, education, health, renewable energy, and gender equality greatly influences global SDG outcomes.
Reason (R) is true:
India’s population constitutes about one-sixth of the world’s total population (nearly 17%). Hence, the progress or lag in India directly affects global statistics related to SDG achievements.
Since India’s large population share explains why its success is vital for global SDGs, (R) correctly explains (A).

Correct Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 23. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

Event/Day	Date
1. National Voters Day (India)	25 January
2. Constitution Day (India)	27 January
3. Human Rights Day (World)	29 January

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – (d) 2 and 3

Explanation –

Let’s check each pair:

National Voters Day – 25 January:
- Correct. It is celebrated on 25 January every year to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (1950) and to encourage greater voter participation.
Constitution Day – 27 January:
- Incorrect. Constitution Day (Samvidhan Diwas) is observed on 26 November, not on 27 January. It commemorates the adoption of the Constitution of India in 1949.
Human Rights Day – 29 January:
- Incorrect. Human Rights Day is observed globally on 10 December each year to mark the adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) by the UN General Assembly.

Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are NOT correctly matched.

Correct Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Question 24. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Poverty line differs across time and countries.

Reason (R): The basic needs of people vary across regions and over time.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
The poverty line—the minimum level of income required to meet basic living needs—differs from country to country and over time because it depends on local cost of living, economic conditions, and social standards.
For example, the poverty line in India differs from that of the USA or Japan, and even within India, it changes with time due to inflation and revised consumption patterns.
Reason (R) is also true and correctly explains (A):
Since the basic needs of people (food, clothing, shelter, healthcare, education, etc.) vary across regions and periods, the poverty threshold must be adjusted accordingly to reflect these changing needs.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).

Correct Answer: (a)

Question 25. Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khalji in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

Ranthambore
Jaisalmer
Warangal
Chittor

Code:
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer – (b) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation –

Let us arrange Alauddin Khalji’s major conquests in chronological order:

Jaisalmer (1294 CE):
- Alauddin Khalji conquered Jaisalmer soon after becoming Sultan. The Rawal rulers surrendered after a long siege.
Ranthambore (1301 CE):
- He then captured Ranthambore, defeating Raja Hammir Dev Chauhan after a fierce battle.
Chittor (1303 CE):
- Next, Alauddin attacked Chittor, ruled by Rana Ratan Singh, associated with the legend of Rani Padmini.
Warangal (1309 CE):
- His general Malik Kafur led the expedition to the south and captured Warangal (in present-day Telangana) from the Kakatiya ruler Prataparudra II.

Correct Chronological Order:
Jaisalmer (1294) → Ranthambore (1301) → Chittor (1303) → Warangal (1309)

Hence, the correct answer is (b) 2, 1, 4, 3.

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Question 26. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer by using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Coal Field)	List – II (Country)
A. Appalachian	1. England
B. Lancashire	2. Germany
C. Ruhr	3. Russia
D. Kuzbass	4. United States of America

Code:
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 4 2 3

Answer – (c) 4 1 2 3

Explanation –

Let’s match each major coalfield with its country:

A. Appalachian → (4) United States of America
- The Appalachian coalfields are located in the eastern U.S., stretching from Pennsylvania to Alabama. They are among the world’s richest coal deposits.
B. Lancashire → (1) England
- The Lancashire coalfield is located in northwestern England, historically important for fueling the Industrial Revolution.
C. Ruhr → (2) Germany
- The Ruhr Valley in western Germany is the largest industrial coal-mining region in Europe, crucial for Germany’s steel and energy industries.
D. Kuzbass → (3) Russia
- The Kuznetsk Basin (Kuzbass), in southwestern Siberia, Russia, is one of the largest coal-producing regions in the world.

Correct Matching:
A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3

Correct Answer: (b) 4, 1, 2, 3

Question 27. With reference to the Global Environment Facility (GEF), which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was established in 1991.
Only the developed countries are donors to it.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct:
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in 1991 as a financial mechanism to provide grants and funding to developing countries for projects related to biodiversity, climate change, land degradation, and pollution control.
It was set up by the World Bank, UNDP, and UNEP and later restructured in 1994 during the Rio Earth Summit.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
While developed countries contribute most of the funds, several developing countries also participate as donors and recipients. Hence, it is not limited only to developed countries.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Only 1.

Question 28. Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct chronological order:

Pabna
Indigo
Kuka
Sanyasi

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

Answer – (a) 4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation –

Let’s arrange these revolts in their chronological order with corresponding years:

Sanyasi Revolt (1763–1800):
- One of the earliest revolts against British rule in Bengal.
- Led by Hindu ascetics (Sanyasis) and Muslim Fakirs, it arose due to heavy taxation and famine after the Battle of Buxar (1764).
Indigo Revolt (1859–1860):
- Took place in Bengal when farmers protested against European planters forcing them to grow indigo instead of food crops.
- It led to the Indigo Commission (1860) by the British government.
Kuka Revolt (1872):
- Also known as the Namdhari Movement, it occurred in Punjab, led by Baba Ram Singh, against British rule and social evils.
Pabna Revolt (1873–1876):
- Took place in Pabna district (now in Bangladesh) against zamindars who were exploiting peasants through high rents and illegal levies.

Correct Chronological Order:
Sanyasi (1763–1800) → Indigo (1859–60) → Kuka (1872) → Pabna (1873–76)

Hence, the correct answer is (a) 4, 2, 3, 1.

Question 29. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Finance Commission)	List – II (Chairman)
A. Eleventh	1. Dr. C. Rangarajan
B. Twelfth	2. Dr. Y. V. Reddy
C. Thirteenth	3. Prof. A. M. Khusro
D. Fourteenth	4. Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar

Code:
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 2 1 4

Answer – (c) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation –

Let’s match each Finance Commission with its Chairman:

11th Finance Commission (2000–2005) → Prof. A. M. Khusro (3)
- Recommended measures to augment the consolidated funds of states to supplement Panchayati Raj Institutions and urban local bodies.
12th Finance Commission (2005–2010) → Dr. C. Rangarajan (1)
- Focused on fiscal consolidation and distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States.
13th Finance Commission (2010–2015) → Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar (4)
- Recommended a fiscal roadmap for both the Centre and States to achieve fiscal balance and promote efficiency.
14th Finance Commission (2015–2020) → Dr. Y. V. Reddy (2)
- Recommended increasing states’ share in the divisible pool of taxes from 32% to 42%, enhancing fiscal federalism.

Correct Matching:
A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2

Correct Answer: (c) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields returns in the future.

Reason (R): Education and health make people more productive.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
Investment in human capital—through education, training, and healthcare—enhances an individual’s productivity and skills, leading to higher income and economic growth in the future. This is considered a long-term investment that yields measurable returns over time.
Reason (R) is also true and correctly explains (A):
Education and health are fundamental components of human capital.
- Education improves knowledge, efficiency, and innovation.
- Health ensures better physical and mental capability, leading to greater productivity.
  Hence, together they increase the earning capacity of individuals and boost economic development.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).

Correct Answer: (a)

Question 31. With reference to the Indian Ocean, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was called by the Ancient Greeks as Erythraean Sea.
It is spread on either side of the equator.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct:
The Ancient Greeks referred to the Indian Ocean as the Erythraean Sea, a term derived from the Greek word Erythros, meaning “red.”
This name was used in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, an ancient Greek travel document describing navigation and trade routes along the Indian Ocean, the Red Sea, and the coast of India.
Statement 2 is correct:
The Indian Ocean extends both north and south of the equator, making it the only ocean named after a country—India.
It lies primarily in the Southern Hemisphere but also covers parts of the Northern Hemisphere, bounded by Africa, Asia, Australia, and Antarctica.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Question 32. With reference to Uttar Pradesh, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potato in the country.
Government of India has approved for establishment of South Asia Regional Centre of International Potato Centre at Aligarh.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct:
Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of potato in India, contributing about 30–35% of the country’s total potato production.
Major potato-producing districts in the state include Agra, Farrukhabad, Firozabad, Etawah, Mainpuri, and Kannauj.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Government of India has approved the establishment of the South Asia Regional Centre (SARC) of the International Potato Centre (CIP) at Agra, Uttar Pradesh.
This centre promotes research and innovation in potato farming and helps improve yields, seed quality, and disease resistance.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Question 33. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Governor General/Viceroy)	List – II (Important contribution/work)
A. Lord Dalhousie	1. Permanent Settlement of Bengal
B. Lord Curzon	2. Prohibition of Practice of Sati
C. Lord William Bentinck	3. Partition of Bengal
D. Lord Cornwallis	4. Doctrine of Lapse

Code:
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer – (a) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation –

Let’s correctly match each Governor-General/Viceroy with their major work:

A. Lord Dalhousie → (4) Doctrine of Lapse
- Introduced the Doctrine of Lapse policy to annex princely states that had no natural male heir (e.g., Satara, Jhansi, Nagpur).
B. Lord Curzon → (3) Partition of Bengal
- Carried out the Partition of Bengal in 1905, citing administrative efficiency, but it was seen as an attempt to divide Hindus and Muslims.
C. Lord William Bentinck → (2) Prohibition of Practice of Sati
- Known as a social reformer, he abolished Sati in 1829, following efforts by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
D. Lord Cornwallis → (1) Permanent Settlement of Bengal
- Introduced the Permanent Settlement (1793), fixing land revenue permanently with landlords (zamindars).

Correct Matching:
A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

Correct Answer: (a) 4, 3, 2, 1

Question 34. With reference to Ecosystem, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Green plants in terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on their leaves.
Around 10% of organic matter reaches the next higher level of consumers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct:
In a terrestrial ecosystem, green plants (producers) capture about 1% of the solar energy that falls on their leaves through photosynthesis.
This captured energy is converted into chemical energy (biomass), which becomes the base of the food chain.
Statement 2 is correct:
According to the “10 percent law” of energy transfer (proposed by Lindeman), only about 10% of the energy or organic matter of one trophic level is passed on to the next higher trophic level, while the rest is lost as heat or used for metabolic processes.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Question 35. Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last:

Voters photo identity card
Electronic voting machine (EVM)
Voter verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT)
NOTA

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer – (b) 1, 2, 4, 3

Explanation –

Let’s arrange these election reforms chronologically:

Voters Photo Identity Card (EPIC) – 1993:
- The Election Commission of India introduced EPICs to prevent impersonation and electoral fraud.
- The project began in 1993 under Chief Election Commissioner T.N. Seshan.
Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) – 2000s:
- EVMs were first used experimentally in Kerala, 1982, but were officially introduced nationwide in 2004 Lok Sabha elections.
NOTA (None of the Above) – 2013:
- The Supreme Court directed the Election Commission in 2013 to include the NOTA option in electronic voting machines, allowing voters to reject all candidates.
Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) – 2013 (Introduced), implemented fully in 2019:
- First introduced in Nagaland (2013) and later expanded nationwide in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections to ensure transparency and voter confidence.

Correct Chronological Order:
Voters Photo ID (1993) → EVM (2004) → NOTA (2013) → VVPAT (2013–2019)

Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2, 4, 3

Question 36. Which among the following is/are NOT a social indicator of poverty?

Illiteracy
Safe drinking water
Job opportunities
Size of the house

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

Answer – (d) 3 and 4

Explanation –

Social indicators of poverty are factors that reflect the living conditions and quality of life of individuals or communities. These indicators usually include aspects that reveal deprivation in basic needs and human development.

1. Illiteracy – Social indicator of poverty
Illiteracy reflects lack of access to education and is a strong indicator of poverty.
2. Safe drinking water – Social indicator of poverty
Lack of access to safe drinking water is another key indicator of poor living conditions and poverty.
3. Job opportunities – Not a social indicator
It is an economic indicator rather than a social one, as it relates to employment and income generation.
4. Size of the house – Not a social indicator
It is a physical or material indicator of living standards but not directly categorized as a social indicator of poverty.

Hence, Job opportunities and Size of the house are not social indicators of poverty.

Correct Answer: (d) 3 and 4

Question 37. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order:

Cripps Mission
Cabinet Mission
Shimla Conference
Wavell Plan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer – (c) 1, 4, 3, 2

Explanation –

Let’s arrange these important events of the Indian Freedom Movement (1940s) in the correct chronological order with their years:

Cripps Mission (1942):
- Sent by the British government under Sir Stafford Cripps during World War II to secure Indian cooperation.
- Proposed Dominion Status after the war, but it was rejected by Indian leaders.
Wavell Plan (June 1945):
- Announced by Lord Wavell, the then Viceroy of India, to form a reconstituted Executive Council giving more representation to Indians.
Shimla Conference (July 1945):
- Convened by Lord Wavell to discuss the Wavell Plan with Indian leaders like Mahatma Gandhi, Jinnah, and Nehru, but it failed due to disagreements between Congress and the Muslim League.
Cabinet Mission (1946):
- Sent by the British government to India to discuss transfer of power and frame a constitution.
- Led by Lord Pethick-Lawrence, A. V. Alexander, and Sir Stafford Cripps.

Correct Chronological Order:
Cripps Mission (1942) → Wavell Plan (1945) → Shimla Conference (1945) → Cabinet Mission (1946)

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 4, 3, 2

Question 38. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for economic, social and political functions in a modern democratic state.

Reason (R): The core objective of Directive Principles is to establish economic and social democracy.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Indian Constitution, are essential for achieving economic, social, and political justice, which are the three pillars of democracy. They guide the State in policymaking to ensure welfare and equality.
Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A):
The core objective of DPSPs is to establish economic and social democracy, complementing the political democracy established by Fundamental Rights.
This idea was inspired by the Irish Constitution and aims to create a welfare state in India.

Therefore, both the Assertion and the Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Correct Answer: (a)

Question 39. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Railway Zone	Headquarter
1. Northern Railway	New Delhi
2. North Eastern Railway	Gorakhpur
3. South Eastern Railway	Cuttack

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer – (c) Only 1 and 2

Explanation –

Let’s verify each pair:

Northern Railway – New Delhi:
- Correct. The Northern Railway Zone is headquartered at Baroda House, New Delhi.
- It is one of the largest zones of Indian Railways.
North Eastern Railway – Gorakhpur:
- Correct. The North Eastern Railway (NER) has its headquarters in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh, which also has one of the longest railway platforms in the world.
South Eastern Railway – Cuttack:
- Incorrect. The South Eastern Railway (SER) has its headquarters at Garden Reach, Kolkata (West Bengal), not at Cuttack.

Therefore, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Correct Answer: (c) Only 1 and 2

Question 40. Who among the following introduced the concept of entitlements in food security?

M. S. Swaminathan
Atul Pranay
Samali Srikant
Amartya Sen

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

Answer – (b) Only 4

Explanation –

The concept of “entitlements” in food security was introduced by Prof. Amartya Sen, an Indian economist and Nobel laureate.
In his famous work “Poverty and Famines: An Essay on Entitlement and Deprivation” (1981), Sen argued that famines occur not because of lack of food supply, but because certain groups of people lose their access (entitlements) to food.
According to him, food security depends not only on food availability but also on people’s economic and legal access to it through ownership, production, trade, or social support.

Other names mentioned (M. S. Swaminathan, etc.) contributed to agricultural development and food production, but not to the theoretical concept of food entitlements.

Correct Answer: (b) Only 4

Question 41. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The interior part of Australia is desert and semi-desert.

Reason (R): Northern Australia is situated in the temperate zone.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer – (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation –

Assertion (A) is true:
The interior part of Australia, often called the Outback, consists largely of desert and semi-desert regions such as the Great Victoria Desert, Great Sandy Desert, Simpson Desert, and Gibson Desert.
This is mainly due to low rainfall and the rain-shadow effect caused by surrounding coastal ranges.
Reason (R) is false:
Northern Australia is not in the temperate zone; it lies in the tropical zone, located near the Tropic of Capricorn and experiencing a tropical savanna climate with wet and dry seasons.
The temperate zone actually covers southern Australia, including areas like Tasmania, Victoria, and southern New South Wales.

Therefore, the Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.

Correct Answer: (d)

Question 42. Which one of the following books is NOT written by Kalidasa?

Meghaduta
Raghuvamsam
Shringar Shatak

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – (b) Only 3

Explanation –

Meghaduta – Written by Kalidasa, it is a famous lyrical poem (kavya) where a yaksha sends a message to his beloved through a cloud (Megha).
Raghuvamsam – Also written by Kalidasa, this epic poem describes the lineage of King Raghu, from whom Lord Rama descended.
Shringar Shatak – Not written by Kalidasa.
It was composed by Bhartrihari, an ancient Sanskrit poet and philosopher. The work deals with love (śṛṅgāra rasa) and forms one of his three famous collections — Shringar Shatak, Neeti Shatak, and Vairagya Shatak.

Hence, “Shringar Shatak” is not written by Kalidasa.

Correct Answer: (b) Only 3

Question 43. With reference to the Joint Sitting of Parliament, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament.
A Joint Sitting of Parliament may be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 2

Answer – (b) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation –

Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Joint Sitting of Parliament is provided under Article 108 of the Constitution, not Article 109.
- It is summoned by the President of India to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha over an ordinary bill.
- The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
A Joint Sitting cannot be held for a Constitution Amendment Bill or Money Bill.
- The provision applies only to ordinary bills under Article 108.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Correct Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 44. Which of the following Department prepares the National Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh?

Department of Finance
Department of Education
Department of Planning

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:
The Department of Planning (Niti Vibhag), Government of Uttar Pradesh, is responsible for preparing the National Indicator Framework (NIF) Progress Report related to the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at the state level.

The department works in coordination with NITI Aayog (Government of India) to monitor the progress of the SDG India Index and publishes the State Indicator Framework (SIF) and District Indicator Framework (DIF) for tracking development goals in Uttar Pradesh.

The Department of Finance deals with budgeting and fiscal policies.
The Department of Education focuses on educational objectives but not the overall SDG reporting.
The Department of Planning integrates data from all departments and compiles progress reports related to SDGs.

Hence, the correct answer is Only 3 (Department of Planning).

Question 45. Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)?

Bahrain
Iran
Iraq
Qatar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) was established in 1981 to promote economic, political, and security cooperation among the Arab states of the Persian Gulf.

The member countries of GCC are:

Bahrain
Kuwait
Oman
Qatar
Saudi Arabia
United Arab Emirates (UAE)

Countries not part of GCC:

Iran – excluded due to political and ideological differences (non-Arab, Shia-majority nation).
Iraq – also not a member, primarily because of historical and political tensions with GCC states.

Hence, Iran and Iraq (2 and 3) are not members of the Gulf Cooperation Council.

Question 46. With reference to Silver articles, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Silver articles turn black after some time when exposed to air.
It happens due to coating of silver sulphide.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
When silver articles are exposed to air for a long time, they react with sulphur compounds present in the atmosphere (especially hydrogen sulphide, H₂S).

This reaction forms a black coating of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) on the surface of silver items.
As a result, silver articles lose their shine and appear black or tarnished.

Chemical reaction:
2Ag + H₂S → Ag₂S + H₂

Hence,

Statement 1 is correct — silver turns black on exposure to air.
Statement 2 is correct — it is due to formation of silver sulphide.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Both 1 and 2.

Question 47. Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.

Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)
Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 1, 2

Answer: (a) 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation –

Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) –
- Launched in 1978–79 and extended throughout the country in 1980.
- Objective: To provide self-employment opportunities to rural poor through asset creation.
National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) –
- Launched in 1980 (replacing the Food for Work Programme).
- Objective: To generate supplementary employment in rural areas.
Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA) –
- Introduced in 1982–83 as a sub-scheme of IRDP.
- Objective: To improve the socio-economic status of women in rural areas.
Jawahar Rojgar Yojana (JRY) –
- Launched in 1989 by merging NREP and Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP).
- Objective: To provide wage employment in rural areas.

Correct Chronological Order: 3 → 4 → 2 → 1

Answer: (a) 3, 4, 2, 1

Question 48. With reference to the Vice-President of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
The Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Statement 1: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

True.
As per Article 64 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
This means that by virtue of his office, the Vice-President presides over the Rajya Sabha sessions.

Statement 2: The Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha.

False.
The Vice-President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
He only presides over it as the ex-officio Chairman.
In fact, the Vice-President cannot be a member of either House of Parliament at the time of assuming office.
If he is, he must resign before taking oath (Article 66(4)).

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

Question 49. With reference to Carrying Capacity of Environment, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The rate of resource extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation.
Generation of waste should remain within the absorption capacity of environment.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 2

Explanation:

The carrying capacity of the environment refers to the maximum level of human activity or population that the environment can sustain without degradation.
For sustainability, two main conditions must be met:
1. The rate of resource extraction should not exceed the rate of resource regeneration.
2. The generation of waste must remain within the absorption capacity of the environment.

In the question:

Statement 1 is incorrect, because it wrongly states that extraction should remain above generation. The correct concept is that extraction should remain below or equal to regeneration.
Statement 2 is correct, as it aligns with the definition of environmental carrying capacity.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Only 2.

Question 50. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Buland Darwaza was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar.
Reason (R): Akbar built this monument to commemorate the birth of his son Jahangir.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation:

The Buland Darwaza (Gate of Magnificence) was indeed constructed by Mughal emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri — hence Assertion (A) is true.
However, Akbar built it to commemorate his victory over Gujarat in 1573, not the birth of his son Jahangir — therefore, Reason (R) is false.

Key facts:

Height: ~54 meters
Year of construction: 1575 CE
Architectural style: Mughal (red sandstone and marble inlay work)
Significance: Symbol of Akbar’s imperial power and religious tolerance

Hence, the correct answer is (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question 51. With reference to Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE), which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was launched in June 2022.
Its idea was proposed at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Statement 1: It was launched in June 2022.

Statement 2: Its idea was proposed at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain.

True.
The LiFE Movement (Lifestyle for Environment) was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 5th June 2022 (World Environment Day).
Aim: To encourage an environment-friendly lifestyle and promote the concept of “Pro-Planet People” (P3).

False.
The idea of LiFE was first proposed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during the 26th UN Climate Change Conference (COP 26) held at Glasgow, United Kingdom, in 2021, not at COP 25 (Madrid, 2019).

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

Question 52. As per the India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023), which of the following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest cover of more than 20% of their total geographical area?

Bahraich
Chandauli
Shravasti

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Explanation:
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI):

Only a few districts in Uttar Pradesh have forest cover exceeding 20% of their total geographical area.
These districts include:
- Bahraich – 10.15%
- Chandauli – 21.63%
- Shravasti – 20.9%.

Hence, the districts with forest area exceeding 20% are Shravasti and Chandauli.

Correct Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Question 53. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Emperor)	List – II (City where Tomb is located)
A. Babur	1. Agra
B. Humayun	2. Lahore
C. Jahangir	3. Delhi
D. Shah Jahan	4. Kabul

Code:
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: (c) 4 3 2 1

Explanation –

A. Babur → 4 (Kabul)

Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, was initially buried at Agra but later his remains were shifted to Kabul (Afghanistan), as per his wishes.
A → 4

B. Humayun → 3 (Delhi)

The magnificent Humayun’s Tomb in Delhi was built by his widow Haji Begum in 1570.
B → 3

C. Jahangir → 2 (Lahore)

Jahangir’s Tomb is located at Shahdara Bagh, Lahore (present-day Pakistan).
C → 2

D. Shah Jahan → 1 (Agra)

Shah Jahan is buried beside Mumtaz Mahal in the Taj Mahal, Agra.
D → 1

Correct Matching: A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

Correct Answer: (c) 4 3 2 1

Question 54. With reference to Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar announced in June 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Yuva Puraskar was announced in 23 Indian languages.
There is no Yuva Puraskar in Dogri this year.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2025 was announced in 23 Indian languages.
The Dogri language did not receive any Yuva Puraskar this year.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Question 55. Which of the following districts is/are part of the Devipatan Division in Uttar Pradesh?

Basti
Bahraich
Balrampur

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (d) Only 2 and 3

Explanation –

Devipatan Division (HQ – Gonda) is one of the administrative divisions of Uttar Pradesh.

It comprises the following four districts:

Gonda
Bahraich
Balrampur
Shravasti

Now check each option

Basti – belongs to Basti Division, not Devipatan.
Bahraich – part of Devipatan Division.
Balrampur – part of Devipatan Division.

Correct Answer: (d) Only 2 and 3

Question 56. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The concept of National Integration involves political, economic, social, cultural and psychological dimensions and inter-relation between them.
Reason (R): The National Integration Council was constituted in 1961 on the principle of ‘Unity in Diversity’.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:

National Integration refers to the process of creating a sense of unity and belonging among diverse sections of a nation. It covers multiple dimensions — political, economic, social, cultural, and psychological — to strengthen the feeling of oneness. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.
The National Integration Council (NIC) was indeed established in 1961 by the Government of India to address issues of communalism, casteism, regionalism, and to promote the principle of “Unity in Diversity.” Hence, Reason (R) is also true.
However, the NIC’s establishment is not a direct explanation of the multidimensional nature of national integration; it is rather a step taken to promote it.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

Question 57. With reference to Baking Soda, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is Sodium hydrogen carbonate.
It is used in fire extinguishers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Baking Soda is the common name for Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) — hence, Statement 1 is correct.
It is a mild alkali used in cooking (as a leavening agent) and also in fire extinguishers.
- When heated or when reacting with acid, baking soda releases carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas: 2NaHCO3→Na2CO3+CO2+H2O2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + CO₂ + H₂O2NaHCO3→Na2CO3+CO2+H2O
- The CO₂ gas helps extinguish fire by cutting off the oxygen supply.
- Thus, Statement 2 is also correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Both 1 and 2.

Question 58. Global Wage Report 2024–25 was released by which of the following organisations?

International Labour Organisation
World Bank
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
The Global Wage Report is an annual publication released by the International Labour Organisation (ILO).

It provides a comprehensive analysis of global trends in wages, income inequality, and labour market policies.
The World Bank and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) focus on economic development and financing but do not publish wage-specific reports like this one.

The Global Wage Report 2024–25 continues ILO’s tradition of assessing real wage growth, gender pay gaps, and the effects of inflation on workers’ earnings worldwide.

Hence, the correct answer is (a) Only 1.

Question 59. The Suez Canal connects which of the following?

Atlantic Ocean
Red Sea
Mediterranean Sea
Indian Ocean

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea (north) with the Red Sea (south).
It provides the shortest maritime route between Europe and Asia, avoiding the need to navigate around the Cape of Good Hope (southern tip of Africa).
The canal does not connect directly to either the Atlantic Ocean or the Indian Ocean, though it serves as part of the trade route linking them.

Key Facts:

Opened: 1869
Length: ~193 km
Connects: Port Said (Mediterranean Sea) to Suez (Red Sea)

Hence, the correct answer is (d) 2 and 3.

Question 60. With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was initiated in 2019.
It aims to restore mangrove forests.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 2

Explanation:

The MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Income) was announced in the Union Budget 2023–24, not in 2019. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
The scheme’s objective is to restore and expand mangrove forests across India’s coastline and saltpan lands, enhancing biodiversity and carbon sequestration. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The initiative is being implemented through convergence of schemes like CAMPA Fund, MGNREGS, and other sources.

Key points:

Launched: 2023
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)
Aim: Restoration and development of mangroves in coastal states and UTs.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Only 2.

Question 61. Which of the following Ramsar wetland sites is/are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh?

Sarsai Nawar Jheel
Samaspur Bird Sanctuary
Rudrasagar Lake
Sultanpur National Park

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 and 4

Explanation:
Let’s verify each site:

Sarsai Nawar Jheel – Located in Etawah district, Uttar Pradesh.
Samaspur Bird Sanctuary – Located in Rae Bareli district, Uttar Pradesh.
Rudrasagar Lake – Located in Tripura (not in Uttar Pradesh).
Sultanpur National Park – Located in Gurugram district, Haryana.

Hence, Rudrasagar Lake and Sultanpur National Park are not situated in Uttar Pradesh.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 3 and 4.

Question 62. Consider the following Committees relating to poverty and arrange their formation in correct chronological order:

Lakdawala Committee
Rangarajan Committee
Tendulkar Committee
Dandekar and Rath Committee

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2
(c) 4, 1, 2, 3
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: (a) 4, 1, 3, 2

Explanation:
Here is the chronological order of major poverty estimation committees in India:

Dandekar and Rath Committee (1971) –
- First to estimate poverty in India based on calorie intake (2,250 calories per person per day for rural areas).
- Used data from the National Sample Survey (NSS).
Lakdawala Committee (1993) –
- Headed by D.T. Lakdawala.
- Defined poverty line based on consumption expenditure and continued calorie-based norms.
Tendulkar Committee (2009) –
- Headed by Suresh Tendulkar.
- Shifted poverty measurement to a mixed reference period and consumption pattern-based approach.
Rangarajan Committee (2014) –
- Headed by C. Rangarajan.
- Revised poverty lines upward and recommended higher daily per capita expenditure limits for poverty.

Chronological Order:
Dandekar & Rath (1971) → Lakdawala (1993) → Tendulkar (2009) → Rangarajan (2014)

Hence, the correct answer is (a) 4, 1, 3, 2.

Question 63. Match List–I with List–II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Committees of Constituent Assembly)	List – II (Chairman of Committees)
A. Union Constitution Committee	1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Rules of Procedure Committee	2. J. B. Kripalani
C. Drafting Committee	3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee	4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Code:
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 1 3 2

Answer: (d) 4 1 3 2

Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly of India (1946–1949) formed several committees to prepare various parts of the Constitution.
Here are the correct matches:

Union Constitution Committee → Jawaharlal Nehru (He also chaired the Union Powers Committee.)
Rules of Procedure Committee → Dr. Rajendra Prasad (He later became the President of the Constituent Assembly and the first President of India.)
Drafting Committee → Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (He was the principal architect of the Indian Constitution.)
Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee → J. B. Kripalani (He oversaw the drafting of provisions related to Fundamental Rights.)

Therefore, the correct code is (d) 4 1 3 2.

Question 64.Consider the following and arrange them in the correct chronological order:

Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
Jal Jeevan Mission
National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Answer: (c) 2, 4, 1, 3

Explanation:
Let’s arrange the schemes and policies in their chronological order of launch:

National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy – 2007
- Announced by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation.
- Focused on promoting sustainable urban housing and addressing slum rehabilitation.
Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) – 2005
- Launched earlier but continued till 2014; aimed at improving urban infrastructure and governance.
Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) – 2015
- Launched to replace JNNURM; focused on water supply, sewerage, and urban renewal in 500 cities.
Jal Jeevan Mission – 2019
- Focused on providing Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) to every rural household by 2024.

Chronological Order:
JNNURM (2005) → National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy (2007) → AMRUT (2015) → Jal Jeevan Mission (2019)

When arranged as per the given list, the correct coded sequence is:
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3

Question 65. With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748), which of the following statements is/are correct?

The First Carnatic War ended.
Madras was returned to the British.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748) ended the War of Austrian Succession in Europe, and consequently also ended the First Carnatic War (1746–1748) in India, which was its Indian counterpart between the British and the French.
Under this treaty:
- Madras, which had been captured by the French (under Dupleix) from the British, was returned to the British East India Company.
- In return, the British restored Louisburg (in North America) to France.

Thus,

Statement 1 — Correct (It ended the First Carnatic War).
Statement 2 — Correct (Madras was returned to the British).

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Both 1 and 2.

Question 66. With reference to International Solar Alliance (ISA), which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is the first treaty-based intergovernmental organisation headquartered in India with 38 member countries.
World Solar Bank and One Sun One World One Grid Initiative were initiated under it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was jointly launched by India and France in 2015 during the Paris Climate Conference (COP-21).
It is the first treaty-based intergovernmental organisation headquartered in India (Gurugram, Haryana).
Although it started with 121 prospective member countries (countries located between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn), as of 2025, over 110 countries have signed the Framework Agreement, and around 90+ have ratified it — hence, the figure “38” refers to early membership.
The World Solar Bank (WSB) proposal and the One Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative have both been conceptualised under the ISA framework to promote solar energy cooperation and financing worldwide.

Therefore, both statements are correct — (d) Both 1 and 2.

Question 67. Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last:

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
K. R. Narayanan
A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
R. Venkataraman

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer: (c) 1, 4, 2, 3

Explanation:
Let’s arrange the Presidents of India in their chronological order of tenure:

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (1977–1982) – 6th President of India.
R. Venkataraman (1987–1992) – 8th President of India.
K. R. Narayanan (1997–2002) – 10th President of India.
A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (2002–2007) – 11th President of India.

Chronological order:
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy → R. Venkataraman → K. R. Narayanan → A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

Correct answer: (c) 1, 4, 2, 3

Question 68. Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

Nepali
Dogri
Bodo
Bhojpuri

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) Only 4

Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the recognized official languages of India.

As of now, there are 22 languages included in this schedule.

Among the given options:

Nepali – Included (added by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992)
Dogri – Included (added by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003)
Bodo – Included (added by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003)
Bhojpuri – Not included in the Eighth Schedule (though there have been demands for its inclusion).

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Only 4.

Question 69. ‘Adi Karmyogi Beta Version – A Responsive Governance Initiative’ was launched by which of the following ministry/ministries in June 2025?

Ministry of AYUSH
Ministry of Women and Child Development
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) Only 1 and 4
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 4

Explanation:
The Adi Karmyogi Beta Version initiative was launched in June 2025 by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

It is a responsive governance initiative aimed at building a trained cadre of officials and changemakers for effective and accountable governance in tribal regions.
The platform is designed to enhance capacity building, digital learning, and performance monitoring among tribal welfare officials.

Hence, the correct answer is (b) Only 4.

Question 70. With reference to ozone layer, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Ozone layer shields the surface of the earth from the ultra-violet radiations from the sun.
Ozone depletion has been linked to the chlorofluorocarbons.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The ozone layer is located in the stratosphere, approximately 10–50 km above the Earth’s surface.
It absorbs most of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV-B and UV-C) radiation, preventing them from reaching the Earth’s surface. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances (ODS) such as halons and carbon tetrachloride break down ozone molecules in the stratosphere, leading to ozone layer depletion. Hence, Statement 2 is also correct.
The Montreal Protocol (1987) was signed globally to phase out CFCs and protect the ozone layer.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Both 1 and 2.

Question 71. Which of the following statements with reference to blood is/are correct?

Blood is composed of plasma and different types of cells.
The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear red.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Blood is a connective tissue consisting of two main components:
- Plasma (the liquid part)
- Formed elements (cells), which include red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The red colour of blood is due to haemoglobin, a red pigment present in RBCs that binds with oxygen for transportation. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Question 72. As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, Moonj products are associated with which of the following districts?

Amethi
Sultanpur
Sant Kabir Nagar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Under the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, each district has been assigned a unique traditional product to promote local craftsmanship and generate employment.

Moonj craft (basketry and decorative items made from moonj grass) is a famous handicraft of Amethi and Sultanpur districts.
It involves weaving grass into baskets, trays, and decorative pieces, traditionally made by rural women artisans.
Sant Kabir Nagar is known for handloom products, not moonj craft.

Therefore, Moonj products are associated with Amethi and Sultanpur districts.

Question 73. Which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh?

Lalitpur
Saharanpur
Sonbhadra

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) All 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Lalitpur district (in Bundelkhand region) is a unique geographical case in Uttar Pradesh. It is surrounded on three sides by Madhya Pradesh and shares its boundary with only Jhansi district within Uttar Pradesh. Hence, it is the only district in the state that touches just one other UP district.
Saharanpur shares borders with several districts — Shamli, Muzaffarnagar, and Bijnor — as well as the states of Haryana and Uttarakhand.
Sonbhadra shares boundaries with multiple UP districts (Mirzapur, Chandauli, etc.) and several states (Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Chhattisgarh).

Therefore, the correct answer is Only 1 (Lalitpur).

Question 74. Arrange the following events in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Battle of Kannauj
Battle of Daurah
Battle of Samugarh
Battle of Chausa

Code:
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (b) 4, 2, 1, 3

Explanation:
Let us arrange the battles chronologically:

Battle of Chausa (1539) –
Fought between Sher Shah Suri and Humayun. Sher Shah defeated Humayun, marking the rise of the Sur Empire.
Battle of Daurah (1540) –
Also known as the Battle of Bilgram or Kannauj (1540) in some references, it was another conflict between Humayun and Sher Shah Suri, resulting in Sher Shah’s complete victory and Humayun’s exile.
Battle of Kannauj (1540) –
Often considered part of the same conflict as Daurah, marking the final defeat of Humayun by Sher Shah.
Battle of Samugarh (1658) –
Fought among Mughal princes Aurangzeb, Dara Shikoh, and Murad Bakhsh during the war of succession after Shah Jahan’s illness.

Chronological Order:
Battle of Chausa (1539) → Battle of Daurah (1540) → Battle of Kannauj (1540) → Battle of Samugarh (1658)

Hence, the correct sequence is 4, 2, 1, 3.

Question 75. Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of Parliament in India?

Public Accounts Committee
Estimates Committee
Committee on Public Undertakings

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) All 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (b) All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Parliament of India has three major Financial Committees, which exercise control over the expenditure and financial administration of the government:

Public Accounts Committee (PAC):
- Examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
- Ensures that government money is spent according to the Parliament’s approval.
Estimates Committee:
- Examines the budget estimates and suggests economies in public expenditure.
- Works to improve the efficiency of government spending.
Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU):
- Examines the reports and accounts of public sector undertakings (PSUs).
- Ensures that PSUs are run according to sound business principles.

Therefore, all three — Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, and Committee on Public Undertakings — are Financial Committees of Parliament.

Question 76. With reference to lichens, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Lichens are very good indicators of pollution.
Lichens grow well in polluted areas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Lichens are a symbiotic association between algae and fungi.
They are very sensitive to air pollution, especially sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and other industrial pollutants.
Because of this sensitivity, lichens are used as bioindicators of air quality — their absence indicates polluted air, while their healthy growth shows clean air.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct (lichens are good indicators of pollution), but Statement 2 is incorrect because lichens do not grow well in polluted areas.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only 1.

Question 77. Arrange the following saints in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Nanak
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
Namdev
Kabir

Code:
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 4, 2, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation:
Let’s arrange the saints in their historical order:

Namdev (1270–1350 CE) – Early Bhakti saint from Maharashtra; his devotional hymns are included in the Guru Granth Sahib.
Kabir (c. 1440–1518 CE) – Prominent Nirguna Bhakti saint; preached against casteism and ritualism, emphasising devotion to a formless God.
Guru Nanak (1469–1539 CE) – Founder of Sikhism; promoted equality, universal brotherhood, and devotion to one God.
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (1486–1533 CE) – Saint from Bengal who popularised Bhakti through Kirtans dedicated to Lord Krishna.

Chronological order: Namdev → Kabir → Nanak → Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

Hence, the correct answer is (d) 3, 4, 1, 2.

Question 78. Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali Commission?

K. T. Shah
K. M. Panikkar
P. Sitaramaiah
H. N. Kunzru

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 4

Explanation:

The Fazal Ali Commission, also known as the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC), was appointed by the Government of India in 1953 to examine the reorganisation of Indian states on linguistic and administrative lines.
The Commission had three members:
1. Fazal Ali – Chairman (Judge of the Supreme Court)
2. K. M. Panikkar – Historian and diplomat
3. H. N. Kunzru – Member of Parliament and noted public figure
The Commission submitted its report in 1955, recommending the reorganisation of states largely on linguistic basis, which led to the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 4.

Question 79. Which of the following two are the major constituents of Bio-gas?

Methane
Butane
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:

Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter such as cow dung, agricultural waste, and kitchen refuse.
Its major constituents are:
- Methane (CH₄) – about 50–70%, which is the main combustible component.
- Carbon dioxide (CO₂) – about 30–40%, which is non-combustible.
Small amounts of hydrogen sulphide (H₂S), nitrogen (N₂), and water vapour are also present.
Butane and carbon monoxide are not components of biogas.

Therefore, the major constituents are Methane and Carbon dioxide.

Question 80. Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries?

Bangladesh
Myanmar
Sri Lanka
Malaysia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 2 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 2

Explanation:
Operation Brahma is a relief operation launched by India in response to the earthquake in Myanmar in March 2025.
Thus the correct country is Myanmar.

Question 81. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years.
Reason (R): Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)**

Explanation:

Therefore, both statements are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Food security refers to ensuring that all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food.

Even when a country produces food in surplus, starvation or malnutrition can persist due to inequality in food distribution, poverty, poor infrastructure, and lack of purchasing power.

Hence, food security is vital not just for production, but also for ensuring fair distribution and accessibility.

Question 82. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

City	River
1. Budapest	Danube
2. Cologne	Rhine
3. New Orleans	Missouri
4. Hyderabad (India)	Paleru

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) Only 3 and 4

Explanation:
Let’s verify each pair:

Budapest – Danube: Correct.
- The Danube River flows through Budapest, the capital of Hungary.
Cologne – Rhine: Correct.
- The Rhine River flows through Cologne (Köln), Germany.
New Orleans – Missouri: Incorrect.
- New Orleans is located on the Mississippi River, not the Missouri.
Hyderabad (India) – Paleru: Incorrect.
- Hyderabad is situated on the banks of the Musi River, a tributary of the Krishna River, not Paleru.

Therefore, the incorrectly matched pairs are 3 and 4.

Question 83. With reference to earthworms, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Earthworms improve soil fertility and are known as farmer’s friends.
Earthworm has two pair of hearts.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct.
Earthworms are called “farmer’s friends” because they aerate the soil, decompose organic matter, and enhance soil fertility by improving nutrient cycling.
Statement 2: Incorrect.
Earthworms actually have five pairs of aortic arches (hearts), not two pairs. These function like hearts to pump blood throughout their body.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Question 84. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Dolphins and whales breathe through blowholes.
Earthworms breathe through their skin.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct.
Dolphins and whales are mammals, not fish. They breathe air through blowholes located on top of their heads. These blowholes connect to their lungs, allowing them to inhale and exhale when they surface.
Statement 2: Correct.
Earthworms lack lungs or gills. They respire through their moist skin, where oxygen diffuses in and carbon dioxide diffuses out.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Question 85. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Lok Sabha)	List – II (Speaker)
A. 11th Lok Sabha	1. Om Birla
B. 12th Lok Sabha	2. P. A. Sangma
C. 14th Lok Sabha	3. Somnath Chatterjee
D. 17th Lok Sabha	4. G. M. C. Balayogi

Code:
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 2 4 1

Answer: (c) 2 4 3 1

Explanation:
Let us match each Lok Sabha with its Speaker correctly:

11th Lok Sabha (1996–1998) – P. A. Sangma (served from 1996 to 1998).
12th Lok Sabha (1998–1999) – G. M. C. Balayogi (served from 1998 until his death in 2002).
14th Lok Sabha (2004–2009) – Somnath Chatterjee.
17th Lok Sabha (2019–present) – Om Birla.

Hence, the correct code is A–2, B–4, C–3, D–1, which corresponds to option (c).

Question 86. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Padma Vibhushan Fields 2025)	List – II (Awardee 2025)
A. Trade and Industry	1. Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam
B. Literature and Education	2. Shri Osamu Suzuki
C. Medicine	3. Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair
D. Art	4. Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy

Code:
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 3 1 4

Answer: (b) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:
As per the Padma Vibhushan Awards 2025 list announced by the Government of India:

Shri Osamu Suzuki (Japan) was honoured in the field of Trade and Industry for his contribution to Indo-Japan industrial cooperation.
Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair was honoured in Literature and Education for his outstanding literary work in Malayalam literature.
Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy received the award in Medicine for his contributions to gastroenterology and healthcare.
Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam received the award in Art for his exceptional contribution to Indian classical music.

Hence, the correct matching is:
A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 1
and the correct answer is (b) 2 3 4 1.

Question 87. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Writer)	List – II (Book)
A. Trivikrama Bhatta	1. Gita Govinda
B. Somdev	2. Brihatkathamanjari
C. Jaidev	3. Nal Champu
D. Kshemendra	4. Katha Sarit Sagar

Code:
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (c) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

Trivikrama Bhatta – author of Nal Champu, a classical Sanskrit poem narrating the story of Nala and Damayanti.
Somdev – credited with Katha Sarit Sagar, a famous collection of Indian legends and folktales derived from the lost Brihatkatha.
Jaidev – wrote Gita Govinda, a devotional lyrical poem describing the divine love of Lord Krishna and Radha.
Kshemendra – composed Brihatkathamanjari, a condensed version of Gunadhya’s Brihatkatha.

Hence, the correct matching is:
A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
Correct answer: (c) 3 4 1 2.

Question 88. Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea?

Periyar
Pennar
Palar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Only 1

Explanation:

Periyar River: Originates from the Western Ghats in Kerala and flows westward into the Arabian Sea near Kochi. Hence, it drains into the Arabian Sea.
Pennar River: Originates from Nandi Hills in Karnataka and flows eastward across Andhra Pradesh to join the Bay of Bengal.
Palar River: Also flows eastward from Nandi Hills in Karnataka through Tamil Nadu to the Bay of Bengal.

Thus, among the given rivers, only Periyar falls into the Arabian Sea.

Question 89. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following?

Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Ministry of Rural Development
Ministry of Finance

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched in 2015 to provide collateral-free loans up to ₹10 lakh to micro and small enterprises.
The scheme is implemented through Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Ltd., which is a subsidiary of the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
It is operated under the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
The loans are categorized into three types — Shishu (up to ₹50,000), Kishor (₹50,000–₹5 lakh), and Tarun (₹5–₹10 lakh).

Hence, the correct answer is Only 3 – Ministry of Finance.

Question 90. Which of the following gases is/are lighter than air?

Hydrogen chloride
Sulfur dioxide
Helium

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:
To determine whether a gas is lighter or heavier than air, we compare its molecular weight with that of air (average ≈ 29 g/mol).

Hydrogen chloride (HCl) – Molecular weight = 36.5 → heavier than air.
Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) – Molecular weight = 64 → heavier than air.
Helium (He) – Atomic weight = 4 → much lighter than air, which is why it is used in balloons and airships.

Hence, only Helium is lighter than air.

Question 91. Which among the following words were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?

Socialist
Secular
Sovereign
Republic

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (also known as the Mini Constitution) added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
Before the amendment, the Preamble read:
“Sovereign Democratic Republic.”
After the amendment, it became:
“Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.”
The words “Sovereign” and “Republic” were already part of the original Preamble adopted in 1949.

Therefore, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

Question 92. With reference to the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI), which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was developed and introduced in 2010.
It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct.
The Global Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 2010.
It measures poverty beyond income, considering multiple deprivations faced by individuals in areas such as health, education, and standard of living.
Statement 2: Incorrect.
The MPI does not measure poverty based on income (such as “one dollar per day”). Instead, it assesses non-monetary indicators like nutrition, schooling, housing, electricity, sanitation, and access to clean water.

Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.

Question 93. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Code:
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (a) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:
Here are the 2025 Pulitzer Prize winners in the relevant categories:

Fiction: James by Percival Everett
Drama: Purpose by Branden Jacobs-Jenkins
Biography / Memoir: Every Living Thing by Jason Roberts
Music: Sky Islands by Susie Ibarra

Thus, the correct matching is:
A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2

So the code 3 4 1 2 corresponds to option (a).

Question 94. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List – I (National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary)	List – II (State/Union Territory)
A. Dachigam	1. Madhya Pradesh
B. Keoladeo	2. Rajasthan
C. Kanha	3. Kerala
D. Periyar	4. Jammu and Kashmir

Code:
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (a) 4 2 1 3

Explanation:

Dachigam National Park – Located in Jammu and Kashmir, famous for the Hangul deer (Kashmir stag).
Keoladeo National Park – Situated in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for migratory birds like Siberian cranes.
Kanha National Park – Located in Madhya Pradesh, known for Barasingha (swamp deer) and as an inspiration for Kipling’s Jungle Book.
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary – Located in Kerala, known for its scenic lake and elephant population.

Hence, the correct code is A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3, i.e. (a) 4 2 1 3.

Question 95. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): India has a Parliamentary system of Government.
Reason (R): In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)**

Explanation:

India follows a Parliamentary system of government, both at the Centre and in the States, which is borrowed from the British model.
In this system, the Executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the Legislature (Lok Sabha).
This accountability ensures the principle of responsible government, a key feature of parliamentary democracy.

Hence, both the Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Question 96. Which of the following archaeological sites related to the Indus Valley Civilization are situated in present-day Uttar Pradesh?

Mandi
Rakhigarhi
Hulas

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d) 1 and 3

Explanation:

The Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan Civilization) extended into western Uttar Pradesh, mainly along the upper reaches of the Ganga-Yamuna doab.
Hulas, located in Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh, is one of the easternmost sites of the Harappan Civilization. Hence, it is correctly placed in Uttar Pradesh.
Mandi is in Muzaffarnagar Uttar Pradesh.
Rakhigarhi is in Haryana, one of the largest Harappan sites in India.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3.

Question 97. Which of the following enzymes is/are released in the stomach for protein digestion?

Chymotrypsin
Trypsin
Pepsin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:

Pepsin is the only enzyme secreted in the stomach that helps in the digestion of proteins.
- It is secreted in an inactive form called pepsinogen, which is activated by hydrochloric acid (HCl) present in gastric juice.
- Pepsin breaks down proteins into smaller peptides.
Trypsin and chymotrypsin are enzymes secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine, not by the stomach.

Therefore, the enzyme released in the stomach for protein digestion is Pepsin only.

Question 98. With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC), which of the following statements is/are correct?

Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the Lok Sabha.
Public Accounts Committee consists of 15 members from Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a financial committee of Parliament that examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
It submits its reports to the Lok Sabha, and the Speaker of Lok Sabha appoints its Chairman.
Statement 2 – Incorrect:
The PAC consists of 22 members in total:
- 15 members from the Lok Sabha and
- 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.
  Hence, it does not have 15 members from the Rajya Sabha.

Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

Question 99. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The territories of the Sultanate could be broadly divided into two parts – the Khalsa and the Jagirs.
Reason (R): The Jagirs comprised of the land under the control of the State.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation:

Under the Delhi Sultanate, the territory was divided into two parts:
1. Khalsa (Crown Land): Land whose revenue went directly to the royal treasury.
2. Jagir: Land assigned to nobles and officers in lieu of their services, whose revenues they collected for their maintenance.
The Reason (R) is incorrect because Jagir lands were not directly under the control of the State, but were granted to nobles for administrative and military purposes.

Hence, the Assertion (A) is true, but the Reason (R) is false.

Question 100. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Nuclear Power Plant)	List – II (State)
A. Kudankulam	1. Karnataka
B. Kakrapar	2. Tamil Nadu
C. Kaiga	3. Rajasthan
D. Rawatbhata	4. Gujarat

Code:
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (d) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant – Located in Tirunelveli district, Tamil Nadu, developed in collaboration with Russia.
Kakrapar Atomic Power Station – Situated in Gujarat, near Surat.
Kaiga Nuclear Power Station – Located in Uttar Kannada district, Karnataka.
Rawatbhata Atomic Power Station – Located near Kota in Rajasthan.

Hence, the correct matching is:
A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3,
which corresponds to option (d).

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Question 101. The Global Financial Stability Report is released by which among the following?

International Monetary Fund
World Economic Forum
World Bank

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
It assesses the stability of global financial markets, identifies potential vulnerabilities, and provides policy recommendations to mitigate financial risks.
The World Bank releases reports such as the World Development Report, while the World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report and Global Risks Report.

Therefore, the correct answer is Only 1 – International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Question 102. Joint special forces exercise KHANJAR-XII was held in March 2025 between India and which of the following countries?

Russia
Turkmenistan
Kyrgyzstan
Mongolia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

Answer: (d) Only 3

Explanation:
The 12th edition of the India-Kyrgyzstan Joint Special Forces Exercise KHANJAR-XII was conducted from 10 to 23 March 2025 in Kyrgyzstan.
Thus, the correct country is Kyrgyzstan — that is item 3 only.

Question 103. With reference to Atal Tunnel, which of the following statements is/are correct?

This tunnel is the world’s longest highway tunnel.
This tunnel is built in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect:
The Atal Tunnel is not the world’s longest highway tunnel, but it is the world’s longest highway tunnel above 10,000 feet. It is about 9.02 km long and connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley in Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 – Correct:
The tunnel is built under the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas. It provides all-weather connectivity between Manali and Leh.

Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Question 104.Iron Dome Missile Defence System belongs to which of the following countries?

France
United States of America
Israel

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Iron Dome is a mobile, all-weather air defence system designed to intercept and destroy short-range rockets and artillery shells fired from distances of 4 to 70 km.
It was developed by Israel’s Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI) with financial and technical assistance from the United States.
Therefore, both Israel and the United States of America are associated with its development and operation.

Hence, the correct answer is 2 and 3.

Question 105. With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years.
In Panchayati Raj Institutions, out of the seats reserved, 1/4 of the seats shall be reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
As per Article 243E of the Indian Constitution (inserted by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992), the term of every Panchayat shall be five years from the date of its first meeting.
Statement 2 – Incorrect:
According to Article 243D, not less than one-third (1/3) of the total seats in every Panchayat (including the seats reserved for SCs and STs) shall be reserved for women, not 1/4.

Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

Question 106. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

Pass	State/Union Territory
1. Lipulekh	Ladakh
2. Nathu La	Sikkim
3. Bomdila	Arunachal Pradesh
4. Shipki La	Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
Let’s verify each pair:

Lipulekh Pass – Located in Uttarakhand (not Ladakh). It lies near the tri-junction of India, Nepal, and China, and is an important route for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra.
Nathu La Pass – Correctly matched; it is in Sikkim, connecting India with Tibet.
Bomdila Pass – Correctly matched; located in Arunachal Pradesh, near the eastern Himalayas.
Shipki La Pass – Correctly matched; situated in Himachal Pradesh, connecting India with Tibet for trade.

Therefore, the only incorrect match is Lipulekh – Ladakh.

Correct answer: (a) Only 1.

Question 107. With reference to acids and bases, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Acidic solutions have pH more than 7.
Basic solutions have pH less than 7.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Acidic solutions have pH less than 7, because they have a higher concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺).
Basic (alkaline) solutions have pH greater than 7, because they have a higher concentration of hydroxide ions (OH⁻).
A neutral solution, like pure water, has a pH of 7.

Hence, both statements are incorrect.

Question 108. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Ruler)	List – II (Dynasty)
A. Mahendraverman I	1. Rashtrakuta
B. Kadungon	2. Pallava
C. Amoghavarsha I	3. Chola
D. Rajaraja I	4. Pandya

Code:
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (b) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

Mahendraverman I – A ruler of the Pallava dynasty (reigned 600–630 CE), known for initiating Dravidian-style rock-cut architecture and patronizing art and learning.
Kadungon – A ruler of the Pandya dynasty, credited with reviving the Pandya power in South India around the 6th century CE.
Amoghavarsha I – One of the greatest kings of the Rashtrakuta dynasty (reigned 814–878 CE), renowned for his patronage of Jainism and Kannada literature (Kavirajamarga).
Rajaraja I – The most powerful ruler of the Chola dynasty (reigned 985–1014 CE), known for his extensive conquests and the construction of the Brihadeshwara Temple at Thanjavur.

Hence, the correct matching is:
A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3, i.e. option (b).

Question 109. With reference to the creation of a new All India Service, which of the following statements is/are correct?

In the national interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of new All India Service.
The resolution for creation of new All India Service must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-thirds majority of the total members of the house.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
As per Article 312(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) may, in the national interest, pass a resolution to create one or more All India Services (such as IAS, IPS, IFS, etc.) common to both the Union and the States.
Statement 2 – Incorrect:
The resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting, not of the total membership of the Rajya Sabha.

Hence, only Statement 1 is correct.

Question 110. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

Day	Date
1. International Ozone Day	16 September
2. World Environment Day	5 June
3. World Wildlife Day	22 March

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:
Let’s verify each pair:

International Ozone Day – Correct. Observed on 16 September to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol (1987) for the protection of the ozone layer.
World Environment Day – Correct. Celebrated on 5 June every year, organized by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
World Wildlife Day – Incorrect. It is observed on 3 March, not 22 March. (22 March is World Water Day).

Hence, the pair that is not correctly matched is World Wildlife Day – 22 March.

Correct answer: (b) Only 3.

Question 111. Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched?

Dam	River
1. Baglihar Dam	Chenab
2. Pandoh Dam	Ravi
3. Srisailam Dam	Tungabhadra

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Explanation:
Let’s verify each pair:

Baglihar Dam – Chenab River: Correct.
- Located in Jammu & Kashmir, the Baglihar Hydroelectric Project is built on the Chenab River.
Pandoh Dam – Ravi River: Incorrect.
- The Pandoh Dam is built on the Beas River, not the Ravi. It diverts water to the Sutlej River under the Beas–Sutlej link project.
Srisailam Dam – Tungabhadra River: Incorrect.
- The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna River, not the Tungabhadra.

Hence, pairs 2 and 3 are not correctly matched.

Question 112. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

Biosphere Reserve	State
1. Nokrek	Manipur
2. Manas	Assam
3. Agasthyamalai	Kerala

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
Let’s verify each pair:

Nokrek Biosphere Reserve – Incorrectly matched.
- It is located in Meghalaya, not in Manipur.
- It is known for its rich biodiversity and as a habitat for the red panda.
Manas Biosphere Reserve – Correct.
- Situated in Assam, it is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site and famous for the Assam roofed turtle and golden langur.
Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve – Correct.
- Located in the Western Ghats region of Kerala and Tamil Nadu, named after sage Agasthya.

Hence, only Pair 1 (Nokrek – Manipur) is not correctly matched.

Question 113. Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024?

Central Pollution Control Board
Central Water Commission
Central Groundwater Board

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer – (b) Only 3

Explanation –

The Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 is prepared by the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) under the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
The CGWB monitors groundwater quality across India through its network of observation wells and issues annual reports highlighting contamination levels of arsenic, fluoride, nitrate, iron, and other parameters.
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) mainly deals with surface water and air pollution, while the Central Water Commission (CWC) focuses on surface water resources and river basin management, not groundwater quality.

Hence, the correct answer is (b) Only 3.

Question 114. Arrange the following States of India in the ascending order on the basis of their area and select the correct answer from the code given below.

Haryana
Himachal Pradesh
Punjab
Uttarakhand

Code:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation:
Approximate area of the given states (in sq. km):

Punjab – 50,362
Haryana – 44,212
Uttarakhand – 53,483
Himachal Pradesh – 55,673

When arranged in ascending order of area (smallest to largest):
Haryana (1) < Punjab (3) < Uttarakhand (4) < Himachal Pradesh (2)

Hence, the correct order is 1, 3, 4, 2.

Question 115. ‘BHARATPOL’, an online portal for International Police Co-operation, has been developed by which of the following?

Central Bureau of Investigation
Research and Analysis Wing
Intelligence Bureau
Enforcement Directorate

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –

‘BHARATPOL’ is an online portal developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), which acts as the National Central Bureau (NCB)-India for INTERPOL.
The portal aims to enhance international police cooperation, facilitate real-time information sharing, and streamline communication between Indian law enforcement agencies and INTERPOL member countries.
It helps Indian police organizations access information about criminals, stolen property, notices, and other international alerts.
The R&AW, IB, and ED are intelligence or enforcement agencies but are not responsible for developing BHARATPOL.

Hence, the correct answer is (a) Only 1.

Question 116. With reference to the New Pamban Bridge, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited, which is a ‘Navratna’ public sector unit under the Ministry of Railways.
It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The New Pamban Bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), a Navratna PSU under the Ministry of Railways. RVNL executed the project to replace the old Pamban Bridge (opened in 1914).
Statement 2 – Correct:
The New Pamban Bridge is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge, allowing ships to pass beneath it by lifting a central span vertically.
It connects Mandapam on the mainland with Rameswaram Island in Tamil Nadu.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Question 117. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (State)	List – II (Number of seats in Rajya Sabha)
A. Maharashtra	1. 16
B. Karnataka	2. 18
C. Bihar	3. 19
D. Tamil Nadu	4. 12

Code:
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3

Answer: (a) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:
As per the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha (Council of States) under the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India:

Maharashtra – 19 seats
Karnataka – 12 seats
Bihar – 16 seats
Tamil Nadu – 18 seats

Hence, the correct matching is:
A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4,
which corresponds to option (a).

Question 118. Four Buddhist Councils were held at the following places. Arrange them in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Vaishali
Rajagriha
Kundalvana
Pataliputra

Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer: (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation:
The Four Buddhist Councils were held as follows:

First Buddhist Council – Rajagriha (Rajgir)
- Held soon after Buddha’s death (483 BCE) under the patronage of King Ajatashatru and presided over by Mahakashyapa.
Second Buddhist Council – Vaishali
- Held around 383 BCE under the patronage of King Kalasoka to resolve disputes regarding monastic discipline.
Third Buddhist Council – Pataliputra
- Held around 250 BCE under Emperor Ashoka and presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa.
Fourth Buddhist Council – Kundalvana (Kashmir)
- Held in the 1st century CE under Kanishka (Kushan ruler) and presided over by Vasumitra.

Hence, the chronological order is:
Rajagriha → Vaishali → Pataliputra → Kundalvana

Correct code: 2, 1, 4, 3

Question 119. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Port)	List – II (State)
A. Paradeep	1. Tamil Nadu
B. Tuticorin	2. Kerala
C. Kakinada	3. Odisha
D. Alappuzha	4. Andhra Pradesh

Code:
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 1 2 4

Answer: (b) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

Paradeep Port – Located in Odisha, it is one of India’s major ports on the eastern coast.
Tuticorin Port (V.O. Chidambaranar Port) – Situated in Tamil Nadu, a major port in the Gulf of Mannar.
Kakinada Port – Located in Andhra Pradesh on the eastern coast, handling petroleum and fertilizer exports.
Alappuzha (Alleppey) – Located in Kerala, known for inland waterways and backwater transport rather than a major seaport.

Hence, the correct matching is:
A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2, i.e. option (b).

Question 120. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order:

Acquisition of Awadh by the British
Ilbert Bill Controversy
Indigo Revolt
Second Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Answer – (c) 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation –
Let’s arrange these events in their historical sequence:

Acquisition of Awadh by the British (1856) – Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh (Oudh) under the pretext of misgovernance, just before the Revolt of 1857.
Indigo Revolt (1859–60) – Took place in Bengal against the oppressive European indigo planters. It was one of the earliest peasant movements against colonial exploitation.
Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80) – Fought between the British Empire and Afghanistan during Lord Lytton’s tenure as Viceroy.
Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883) – Occurred during Lord Ripon’s time, concerning the right of Indian judges to try European offenders, sparking racial tensions.

Chronological Order:
Acquisition of Awadh (1856) → Indigo Revolt (1859–60) → Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80) → Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883)

Hence, the correct answer is (c) 1, 3, 4, 2.

Question 121. Who among the following Indian novelists and journalists is/are part of the five-member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize?

Natasha Brown
Kiran Desai
Nilanjana S. Roy
Rajni Chauhan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

Answer: (d) Only 3

Explanation:

The 2026 International Booker Prize judging panel includes Nilanjana S. Roy, the Indian novelist, critic and journalist.
Natasha Brown is on the panel, but she is British, not Indian.
Kiran Desai and Rajni Chauhan are not listed as jury members for the 2026 International Booker Prize.

Hence, the only correct option is Only 3.

Question 122. The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following countries?

Mongolia
China
Russia
Kazakhstan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Gobi Desert is a large cold desert located in northern China and southern Mongolia.
It is bounded by:
- The Altai Mountains and grasslands of Mongolia to the north.
- The Tibetan Plateau to the southwest.
- The North China Plain to the southeast.
It does not extend into Russia or Kazakhstan.

Hence, the Gobi Desert lies in Mongolia and China only.

Question 123. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

Acid	Acid found in
1. Lactic acid	Curd
2. Tartaric acid	Grapes
3. Acetic acid	Potato

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:
Let us verify each pair:

Lactic acid – Curd: Correct.
- Lactic acid is produced by the fermentation of lactose (milk sugar) by Lactobacillus bacteria, giving curd its sour taste.
Tartaric acid – Grapes: Correct.
- Tartaric acid is naturally found in grapes, tamarind, and bananas. It contributes to the sour taste of grapes and wine.
Acetic acid – Potato: Incorrect.
- Acetic acid is found in vinegar, not in potatoes. Potatoes mainly contain oxalic acid and citric acid in small quantities.

Hence, the only incorrectly matched pair is Acetic acid – Potato.

Question 124. Which of the following is/are NOT a cold ocean current?

Agulhas Current
Brazil Current
Humboldt Current
California Current

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Agulhas Current – A warm ocean current flowing southward along the east coast of Africa in the Indian Ocean.
Brazil Current – A warm ocean current flowing southward along the eastern coast of South America.
Humboldt (Peru) Current – A cold ocean current flowing northward along the west coast of South America.
California Current – A cold ocean current flowing southward along the west coast of North America.

Hence, Agulhas Current and Brazil Current are not cold currents.

Question 125. Which of the following sites were obtained by the British East India Company under the Treaty of Sugauli (1816)?

Kathmandu
Shimla
Ranikhet
Nainital

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) Only 3 and 4

Explanation:

The Treaty of Sugauli (1816) was signed between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Nepal after the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–1816).
By this treaty, Nepal ceded large parts of its western and southern territories to the British, which included:
- Kumaon and Garhwal regions (present-day Ranikhet and Nainital areas of Uttarakhand), and
- Parts of the Terai region.
Kathmandu remained the capital of Nepal and was not ceded.
Shimla was acquired separately later after the Anglo-Gurkha War and development under British rule in Himachal Pradesh.

Hence, the territories obtained were Ranikhet and Nainital.

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Question 126. Consider the following sources of world water supply and arrange them in descending order:

Oceans
Rivers
Polar ice and Glaciers
Groundwater

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation:
The approximate distribution of Earth’s water resources is as follows:

Oceans – About 97.2% of the Earth’s total water.
Polar ice and glaciers – About 2.0% of the total water.
Groundwater – About 0.7% of the total water.
Rivers and lakes – Less than 0.01% of total water.

Thus, in descending order (from largest to smallest):
Oceans → Polar ice & Glaciers → Groundwater → Rivers

Hence, the correct answer is 1, 3, 4, 2.

Question 127. Which of the following pairs of Part of the Indian Constitution and its subject is/are NOT correctly matched?

Part	Subject
1. Part IV A	Fundamental Duties
2. Part VI	The States
3. Part XI	The Municipalities

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:
Let’s verify each part:

Part IV-A – Fundamental Duties: Correct.
- Added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (Article 51A).
Part VI – The States: Correct.
- Deals with the executive, legislature, and judiciary of the States (Articles 152–237).
Part XI – The Municipalities: Incorrect.
- Part XI deals with Relations between the Union and the States (Articles 245–263).
- Municipalities are dealt with in Part IX-A (Articles 243P–243ZG), added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992.

Hence, the pair that is not correctly matched is Part XI – The Municipalities.

Question 128. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Voices of men and women are different.
Reason (R): Length and thickness of vocal cords are different in men and women.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:
The voice of men and women differs due to anatomical variations in their vocal cords. In males, the vocal cords are usually longer and thicker, causing them to vibrate more slowly, producing deeper or lower-pitched voices. In females, the vocal cords are shorter and thinner, resulting in higher-pitched voices.
Thus, the difference in length and thickness of vocal cords is the scientific reason for the variation in voices between men and women.

Question 129. With reference to ‘Operation Olivia’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is an initiative of the Indian Coast Guard to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha.
Operation Olivia is carried out during the month of August, which is the nesting time of Olive Ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
‘Operation Olivia’ is an annual initiative launched by the Indian Coast Guard to protect Olive Ridley turtles during their nesting season along the Odisha coast, particularly near Gahirmatha, Devi, and Rushikulya river mouths.

The operation provides patrolling support, prevents fishing activities in turtle congregation areas, and ensures safe nesting and hatching.
However, the nesting period of Olive Ridley turtles is from November to May, not August.

Hence,

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 1 is correct.

Question 130. Which of the following Programmes/Schemes is/are NOT included in meeting the objectives of National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?

ULLAS
DIKSHA
Bharat Nirman Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:

ULLAS (Understanding Lifelong Learning for All in Society):
This scheme was launched by the Ministry of Education to promote adult education and lifelong learning, in alignment with the objectives of NEP 2020—which emphasizes inclusive and equitable quality education for all.
DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing):
It is a digital learning platform developed by the Ministry of Education to support school education, teacher training, and e-content dissemination. It directly supports NEP 2020’s vision of technology integration in education.
Bharat Nirman Programme:
This is an infrastructure development programme (covering rural roads, housing, water supply, etc.) launched in 2005, and it has no direct relation to the objectives of NEP 2020.

Hence,

Statement 1 – Included (related to NEP 2020)
Statement 2 – Included (related to NEP 2020)
Statement 3 – Not included (unrelated to education policy)

Correct Answer: (b) Only 3

Question 131. Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?

Thailand
Nepal
Bhutan
Indonesia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b) Only 4

Explanation:
The BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is a regional organization formed in 1997 to promote economic and technical cooperation among countries of the Bay of Bengal region.

Current Members (7):

Bangladesh
Bhutan
India
Myanmar
Nepal
Sri Lanka
Thailand

Indonesia is not a member of BIMSTEC—it is a member of ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) instead.

Hence,

Thailand – Member
Nepal – Member
Bhutan – Member
Indonesia – Not a member

Correct Answer: (b) Only 4

Question 132. Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy’s Executive Council, saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

Chettur Sankaran Nair
Ishwari Prasad
Muhammad Shafi
Iqbal Narain Gurtu

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair, a distinguished Indian lawyer and nationalist, was a member of the Viceroy’s Executive Council during British rule.
He resigned in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919), expressing deep anguish over the brutal killings of innocent Indians by British troops under General Dyer.
His resignation was one of the earliest and strongest official protests from within the colonial administration.

The other individuals mentioned were not members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council at that time.

Correct Answer: (a) Only 1

Question 133. Consider the following elements found in a typical 70 kg man and arrange them in correct increasing order.

Sodium
Potassium
Copper
Iron

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation:
In the human body, elements are present in varying concentrations. The approximate relative abundance (by weight) in a 70 kg adult male is as follows:

Copper (Cu) → Trace element (~0.1 g)
Iron (Fe) → Around 4 g
Potassium (K) → Around 140 g
Sodium (Na) → Around 100 g (slightly less than potassium but comparable)

Thus, in increasing order (from least to most abundant):
Copper < Iron < Sodium < Potassium

However, since the question asks for increasing order, and by overall physiological composition:
Copper (3) < Iron (4) < Sodium (1) < Potassium (2)

Correct Answer: (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

Question 134. Match List–I with List–II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List – I (Refinery)	List – II (State)
A. Nayara	1. Assam
B. Manali	2. Gujarat
C. Numaligarh	3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tatipaka	4. Tamil Nadu

Code:
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (b) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

Nayara Refinery – Located at Vadinar, Gujarat. It is one of the largest private refineries in India, owned by Nayara Energy (formerly Essar Oil). → (A → 2)
Manali Refinery – Situated near Chennai, Tamil Nadu, operated by Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited (CPCL). → (B → 4)
Numaligarh Refinery – Located in Golaghat district, Assam, often called the “Assam Accord Refinery.” → (C → 1)
Tatipaka Refinery – Located in East Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh, operated by ONGC. → (D → 3)

Correct Matching:
A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

Correct Answer: (b) 2 4 1 3

Question 135. The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the following Indian States?

Uttarakhand
Uttar Pradesh
Kerala
Karnataka

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) Only 4

Explanation:
The Appiko Movement originated in Karnataka in 1983, inspired by the Chipko Movement of Uttarakhand.

The word “Appiko” means “to hug” in Kannada.
The movement began in Salkani village in Uttara Kannada district to prevent the felling of trees in the Western Ghats forests.
Led by Panduranga Hegde, the movement aimed at forest conservation, raising awareness about deforestation, and promoting sustainable forest use.

Hence, it is a forest protection movement of Karnataka.

Correct Answer: (b) Only 4

Question 136. Consider the formation of the following States of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last:

Punjab
Arunachal Pradesh
Nagaland
Sikkim

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:
Let us look at the year of formation of each state:

Nagaland → Formed on 1 December 1963 (16th state of India)
Punjab → Reorganized on 1 November 1966 (Haryana and Himachal Pradesh separated)
Sikkim → Became a full-fledged Indian state on 16 May 1975 (22nd state of India)
Arunachal Pradesh → Granted statehood on 20 February 1987 (25th state of India)

Thus, the chronological order from earliest to latest is:
Nagaland (3) → Punjab (1) → Sikkim (4) → Arunachal Pradesh (2)

Correct Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Question 137. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat.
Reason (R): High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is true because evaporation of sweat from the skin surface absorbs latent heat of vaporization, which helps cool the body and maintain body temperature.
Reason (R) is also true because high humidity reduces the rate of evaporation of sweat, causing less cooling and hence more discomfort.
However, (R) explains a related effect, not the direct reason for (A). The reason for (A) is the latent heat absorption during evaporation, not humidity.

Correct Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 138. Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Bajirao I
Balaji Bajirao
Balaji Vishwanath
Madhav Rao I

Code:
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation:
Let us arrange the Peshwas of the Maratha Empire in chronological order of their rule:

Balaji Vishwanath (1713–1720) – He was the first important Peshwa under Shahu Maharaj and laid the foundation of the Peshwa’s hereditary rule.
Bajirao I (1720–1740) – Known as the most famous Peshwa, he expanded the Maratha Empire through military conquests and did not lose a single battle.
Balaji Bajirao (1740–1761) – Also known as Nanasaheb, he was the son of Bajirao I. His period saw the Third Battle of Panipat (1761) and the subsequent decline of Maratha power.
Madhav Rao I (1761–1772) – Son of Balaji Bajirao, he restored the Maratha Empire’s power after the Panipat debacle.

Chronological Order:
Balaji Vishwanath (3) → Bajirao I (1) → Balaji Bajirao (2) → Madhav Rao I (4)

Correct Answer: (d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Question 139. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

List–I (State)	List–II (Highest Peak)
A. Tamil Nadu	1. Dhupgarh
B. Rajasthan	2. Doddabetta
C. Nagaland	3. Guru Shikhar
D. Madhya Pradesh	4. Saramati

Code:
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 1 4

Answer: (a) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:

Tamil Nadu – Doddabetta (2):
Located in the Nilgiri Hills near Ooty, Doddabetta (2,637 m) is the highest peak in Tamil Nadu and part of the Western Ghats.
Rajasthan – Guru Shikhar (3):
Guru Shikhar (1,722 m) is the highest peak of the Aravalli Range, located near Mount Abu in Rajasthan.
Nagaland – Saramati (4):
Saramati (3,841 m) is the highest peak of Nagaland, situated on the border between India and Myanmar.
Madhya Pradesh – Dhupgarh (1):
Dhupgarh (1,350 m), located near Pachmarhi in the Satpura Range, is the highest point in Madhya Pradesh.

Correct Matching:
A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1

Correct Answer: (a) 2 3 4 1

Question 140. Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security?

Availability
Accessibility
Affordability
Accountability

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) Only 4

Explanation:
According to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the three main dimensions of food security are:

Availability – Sufficient quantities of food must be available through domestic production or imports.
Accessibility – Individuals must have adequate resources (economic and physical) to obtain food.
Affordability (sometimes included as part of access) – Food must be economically affordable to all sections of society.

Accountability is not a recognized dimension of food security.

Correct Answer: (b) Only 4

Question 141. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): In the Himalayan mountains, different types of vegetation are found.
Reason (R): In Himalayas, there are variations in climate with change in altitude.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:
In the Himalayan region, different types of vegetation such as tropical, temperate, alpine, and tundra are found.
This diversity occurs because the climate changes with altitude — temperature decreases and rainfall patterns vary as elevation increases.

For example:

Foothills → Tropical deciduous forests
Mid-altitudes → Temperate coniferous forests
Higher altitudes → Alpine meadows and tundra vegetation

Thus, variation in climate with altitude directly leads to variation in vegetation types.

Correct Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 142. Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of the following State(s)?

Rajasthan
Uttar Pradesh
Uttarakhand

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 3

Explanation:
Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in Uttarakhand at Mana village, Keshav Prayag.

Question 143. With reference to Jnanpith Award, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The 58th Jnanpith Award was conferred upon Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji.
The 1st Jnanpith Award was given in 1965.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Jnanpith Award is India’s highest literary honour, given annually for outstanding contributions to literature in any of the 22 scheduled languages.
It was instituted in 1961 and the first award was given in 1965 to G. Sankara Kurup for his Malayalam work Odakkuzhal (The Bamboo Flute). → Statement 2 is correct.
The 58th Jnanpith Award (2023) was jointly conferred on:
- Jagadguru Rambhadracharya for Sanskrit literature, and
- Gulzar for Urdu literature. → Statement 1 is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Question 144. With reference to Municipalities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The eligible age to be a member of municipality is 25 years.
One-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in the municipalities is reserved for women.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 2

Answer: (d) Only 2

Explanation:

According to the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which added Part IX-A (Articles 243P to 243ZG) to the Constitution, Municipalities are the urban local self-governments in India.

Eligible age:
- The minimum age to contest municipal elections is 21 years, not 25 years.
- Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Reservation for women:
- As per Article 243T, not less than one-third (1/3rd) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Municipality is reserved for women, including seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
- Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Only 2

Question 145. Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order:

Food for Work Programme
Community Development Programme
Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)
Drought Prone Area Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Answer: (b) 2, 4, 1, 3

Explanation:
Let’s see the year of launch of each programme:

Community Development Programme (CDP) – 1952
- It was the first major rural development programme launched after Independence to promote all-round development of rural areas.
Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP) – 1970
- Launched to minimize the effects of drought and promote economic development in drought-prone regions.
Food for Work Programme – 1977
- Introduced to provide employment in rural areas through public works in exchange for food grains.
Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) – 1979
- Launched to provide technical and vocational skills to rural youth aged 18–35 years to promote self-employment.

Thus, the chronological order is:
Community Development Programme (1952) → Drought Prone Area Programme (1970) → Food for Work Programme (1977) → TRYSEM (1979)

Correct Answer: (b) 2, 4, 1, 3

Question 146. Who among the following had won the International Booker Prize 2025?

Banu Mushtaq
Deepa Bhasthi
Sanjay Chauhan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2

Explanation:

The International Booker Prize 2025 was awarded to Heart Lamp by Banu Mushtaq, with Deepa Bhasthi as the translator.
Therefore, both author (Banu Mushtaq) and translator (Deepa Bhasthi) are winners of the prize.
Sanjay Chauhan was not a recipient of the International Booker Prize in 2025.

Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 147. With reference to hydroelectricity in North India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region.
Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential because the Himalayas situated to their north lie in the boundary of Nepal.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Himalayan region has abundant water resources and steep gradients, making it highly suitable for hydroelectric power generation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are located in the Gangetic plains, and the Himalayas to their north lie mostly within Nepal’s territory. Therefore, these states cannot directly utilise the hydroelectric potential of the Himalayan rivers, though they benefit from their downstream flow. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.

Correct Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Question 148. With reference to ‘Isotopes’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Atoms with identical atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes.
Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are isotopes of carbon.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct: Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons (same atomic number) but different numbers of neutrons, resulting in different mass numbers.
Example: Hydrogen has three isotopes — Protium (¹H), Deuterium (²H), and Tritium (³H).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Protium, Deuterium, and Tritium are isotopes of Hydrogen, not of carbon.

Hence, the correct answer is (a) Only 1.

Question 149. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies.

Gamma rays
Ultraviolet rays
Radio waves
X-rays

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 4, 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer – (d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Explanation –
The electromagnetic spectrum is arranged in order of decreasing frequency (and increasing wavelength) as follows:
Gamma rays → X-rays → Ultraviolet rays → Visible light → Infrared → Microwaves → Radio waves

Gamma rays have the highest frequency and energy, used in nuclear and cosmic phenomena.
X-rays come next, used in medical imaging.
Ultraviolet rays have lesser frequency than X-rays but higher than visible light.
Radio waves have the lowest frequency and longest wavelength among the given options.

Thus, the correct decreasing order of frequency is:
Gamma rays (1) > X-rays (4) > Ultraviolet rays (2) > Radio waves (3)

Hence, the correct answer is (d) 1, 4, 2, 3.

Question 150. With reference to ‘Brazil’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called ‘Selvas’.
The dark black colour fertile land here is called ‘Terra Roxa’.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer – (a) Only 1

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct: The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are locally known as ‘Selvas’, meaning dense, evergreen, and luxuriant forests. They are characterized by high rainfall and biodiversity, mainly found in the Amazon Basin.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term ‘Terra Roxa’ in Portuguese means ‘red earth’, not black. It refers to the reddish, fertile soil formed from the weathering of basaltic rocks, rich in iron and aluminum oxides. It is mainly found in the southern parts of Brazil and is ideal for coffee cultivation.

Hence, the correct answer is (a) Only 1.

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